Questions
Viral Syndromes by Organ System — Questions
Study questions for the Viral Syndromes by Organ System topic — exam-style, clinical-scenario and FAQ.
Mock Exam mode
Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.
80 questions: 66 MCQ, 14 written.
High priorityClinical scenarioA 20-year-old student presents with breathlessness, fatigue and palpitations two weeks after a flu-like illness. Acute viral myocarditis is suspected. (a) Outline the pathogenesis of this condition. (b) How would you investigate him in the acute phase to identify a potential viral cause? [10]
Model answer
a. Pathogenesis. After a respiratory or gastrointestinal infection the virus, typically an enterovirus such as coxsackievirus B, reaches the heart by viraemia. Injury then occurs in two phases: direct viral damage to myocytes, followed by immune-mediated injury in which cytotoxic T cells attack both infected and, through autoreactivity, uninfected myocytes. Interstitial inflammation and myocyte loss cause ventricular dilation and failure, and healing fibrosis and viral persistence may progress to dilated cardiomyopathy.
b. Acute investigation for a viral cause. Combine cardiac and virological tests. Troponin and creatine kinase MB confirm myocardial injury, the ECG shows sinus tachycardia with low-voltage complexes, and echocardiography or cardiac magnetic resonance imaging shows the dilated, inflamed ventricle. The specific viral evidence comes from endomyocardial biopsy with PCR (and in situ hybridisation) on heart tissue, since peripheral samples are unreliable; supporting serology and throat or stool viral studies may identify a circulating enterovirus. Note that a genome detected in the myocardium supports, but does not alone prove, causation.
High priorityClinical scenarioA 34-year-old woman presents to the ophthalmology emergency department with a 3-day history of a blind spot in her right eye. She is HIV-positive and is on prednisone for tuberculosis-associated immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS). What additional laboratory tests would you do, what is your most likely diagnosis, how would you manage this case, and what complications can occur with management and in the long term? [8]
Model answer
Tests. Check the CD4 count and HIV viral load (corticosteroid for IRIS implies recent immune status), arrange fundoscopy, and confirm with PCR of ocular fluid (and blood) for CMV.
Diagnosis. The most likely diagnosis is CMV retinitis, unmasked by profound immunosuppression; steroid for IRIS may have worsened it.
Management. Treat with ganciclovir or oral valganciclovir (systemic, with intravitreal therapy if sight-threatening), and continue and optimise antiretroviral therapy to restore immunity; review the steroid.
Complications. Treatment and immune recovery carry the risk of immune recovery uveitis, and the retinitis itself can lead to retinal detachment and permanent visual loss in the long term.
High priorityClinical scenarioA 34-year-old woman presents with recurrent genital ulcers, and genital herpes is suspected. Describe the specimen and diagnostic test of choice, the treatment options, and the treatment of choice for this patient. [7]
Model answer
Specimen and test. Take a swab from the base of an ulcer or from a fresh vesicle and test by PCR, which is the diagnostic test of choice and has replaced insensitive culture. Type-specific serology can establish whether the infection is HSV-1 or HSV-2 but does not diagnose the acute lesion.
Treatment options. The aciclic nucleoside analogues aciclovir, valaciclovir or famciclovir, given either episodically at the onset of each recurrence or as daily suppressive therapy.
Treatment of choice. For a patient with recurrent disease, daily suppressive therapy is preferred, as it reduces the frequency of recurrences and asymptomatic shedding, and therefore transmission.
High priorityClinical scenarioA 65-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of a painful vesicular rash over one side of the forehead and extending to the tip of the nose. Identify the clinical diagnosis and state the indications for antiviral treatment. [5]
Model answer
Diagnosis. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus, reactivation of varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. The vesicle on the tip of the nose (Hutchinson’s sign) indicates nasociliary involvement and predicts ocular disease.
Indications for antiviral treatment. Systemic aciclovir, valaciclovir or famciclovir, started within 72 hours of rash onset, which hastens healing and reduces ocular complications. Treatment is also indicated in any ocular involvement, older or immunosuppressed patients, with intravenous aciclovir for the immunosuppressed to prevent dissemination.
High priorityClinical scenarioAn archival photograph from 1970 shows a patient with a generalised rash that progressed through papules to deep-seated pustules, all at the same stage of development, and healed with scarring. (a) What is the most likely clinical diagnosis? (b) Classify the causative virus by family and genus. (c) Name one other genus in this virus family. (d) State the specific threat this virus may pose in modern times. [5]
Model answer
a. Diagnosis. Smallpox (variola), suggested by a synchronous vesiculopustular rash healing with scarring, the lesions all at the same stage.
b. Classification. Family Poxviridae, genus Orthopoxvirus, species variola virus.
c. Another genus. For example Parapoxvirus (orf, milker’s nodule) or Molluscipoxvirus (molluscum contagiosum).
d. Modern threat. Although eradicated in 1980, variola poses a bioterrorism threat because the population is now largely unvaccinated and susceptible.
High prioritySAQA child in a Grade 1 class has "pink eye". What advice would you give the teacher to limit spread? [4]
Model answer
- Adenoviral conjunctivitis is highly contagious and spreads by hands, secretions and contaminated surfaces and objects.
- Advise frequent handwashing by the child and classmates, and avoiding touching or rubbing the eyes.
- Keep the affected child at home until the discharge settles, as shedding continues for up to two weeks.
- Do not share towels, face cloths, toys or other items, and clean shared surfaces, since the virus survives on surfaces.
High prioritySAQA child presents with acute conjunctivitis due to the commonest viral cause. Name the virus and list the associated ocular syndromes it causes. [5]
Model answer
The virus is adenovirus, the commonest cause of viral conjunctivitis. Its ocular syndromes are:
- Pharyngoconjunctival fever (fever, sore throat and conjunctivitis).
- Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (a highly contagious keratoconjunctivitis).
- Nonspecific follicular conjunctivitis (mild, self-limiting, the commonest form).
- Chronic keratoconjunctivitis (rare, with prolonged irritation).
High prioritySAQComment on the rationale for the guideline that HPV testing is generally indicated only for women above 30 years of age. [3]
Model answer
- HPV infection is very common in women under 30, with peak prevalence in the early twenties.
- Most of these infections are transient and clear spontaneously without ever progressing to significant disease.
- Testing younger women therefore detects many infections that would resolve on their own, leading to unnecessary follow-up and treatment; a positive test above 30 is more likely to represent a persistent infection at real risk of progression.
High prioritySAQWrite brief comments on human papillomavirus vaccination and the prevention of laryngeal papillomatosis. [5]
Model answer
- Recurrent respiratory (laryngeal) papillomatosis is caused by HPV-6 and HPV-11, the same low-risk types that cause genital warts.
- The infant acquires the virus at vaginal delivery from maternal genital warts.
- The quadrivalent and nine-valent HPV vaccines include HPV-6 and HPV-11, so vaccinating girls before childbearing prevents maternal genital warts and, in turn, transmission to the infant, which is expected to reduce laryngeal papillomatosis.
High prioritySAQWrite short notes on the epidemiology of molluscum contagiosum. [5]
Model answer
- Agent. Molluscum contagiosum virus, a poxvirus (genus Molluscipoxvirus).
- Distribution. Common worldwide, chiefly in children.
- Transmission. By direct skin-to-skin contact and fomites, and by autoinoculation.
- In adults. Frequently sexually transmitted, giving genital lesions.
- In immunocompromise. Florid, widespread disease with hundreds of lesions in advanced HIV, often with facial involvement.
High priorityExam-styleA 5-year-old presents with a febrile maculopapular rash of two days. List three common viral causes; describe distinguishing features for two of them; outline the laboratory investigations with attention to resource stewardship and infection control; and name one viral cause of childhood rash targeted for global eradication with two features that make eradication feasible. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer names the common causes, gives discriminating clinical features, uses the laboratory sparingly and correctly, and identifies measles as the eradication target.
Common viral causes. The commonest are measles, rubella and parvovirus B19 (erythema infectiosum), with HHV-6 (roseola) and the enteroviruses also frequent.
Distinguishing features. Measles gives a prodrome of fever, cough, coryza and conjunctivitis with Koplik spots, then a rash spreading from the head downward. Rubella is milder with a finer rash and posterior auricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy. Parvovirus B19 gives the slapped-cheek face and a lacy limb rash.
Laboratory. Most cases are diagnosed clinically. Where confirmation is needed, serum IgM (or a rising IgG) confirms measles, rubella and parvovirus, with PCR or reference-laboratory testing reserved for unclear or public-health-important cases. Suspected measles is notified and the child isolated, so testing serves infection control as much as the individual.
Eradication target. Measles is targeted for global eradication: humans are the only reservoir, there is no animal host, and a highly effective live vaccine gives durable immunity, so interrupting transmission is feasible.
High priorityExam-styleBriefly outline the laboratory diagnosis of a waterborne outbreak of viral gastroenteritis. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer names the likely agent, the specimens to collect, the assay of choice and its interpretation, and the environmental sampling that links the cases to a source.
The likely agent in a waterborne outbreak affecting all ages is norovirus. Collect stool specimens from several cases early in the illness, when shedding is highest, since a single positive is weak evidence in an outbreak. The method of choice is reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), which is far more sensitive than antigen enzyme immunoassay; norovirus antigen assays have low sensitivity and are useful only for confirming the agent across a group, not for excluding it in an individual. Sequencing the RT-PCR product allows genotyping, which is what ties cases to each other and to the source.
Test in parallel for rotavirus and enteric adenovirus by antigen assay to exclude the endemic childhood agents. Sample the suspected water source, and any implicated food or environmental surfaces, for the same virus. Because norovirus is frequently detected in well people, interpret results against the clinical and epidemiological picture. A single matching strain across cases and the water source confirms the outbreak and its vehicle.
High priorityExam-styleWrite short notes on human papillomavirus molecular testing in the South African context. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer covers what the test detects, its place in screening, and the South African programme.
What it detects. Human papillomavirus cannot be cultured and serology is unhelpful, so molecular methods detecting HPV DNA or messenger RNA are the only specific tests, targeting the high-risk oncogenic types, above all HPV-16 and HPV-18.
Place in screening. High-risk HPV testing is more sensitive than cytology for detecting cervical pre-cancer, and South Africa is moving from cytology towards primary HPV testing, with positive results triaged (by cytology or directly) to colposcopy.
South African programme. Screening is offered from about age 30 in the general population and starts earlier and is repeated more often in women living with HIV, in whom HPV persists and progresses more readily. The shift supports the national goal of cervical cancer elimination.
High priorityExam-styleWrite short notes on mpox (monkeypox) virus. [10]
Model answer
A complete answer covers the virus, the clinical picture and its distinction from smallpox, and diagnosis and prevention.
Virus. Mpox virus is an orthopoxvirus of the family Poxviridae, a zoonosis endemic in parts of Africa, and it produces disease resembling a milder smallpox.
Clinical features. After an incubation of about 10 to 14 days come a prodrome of fever, malaise and prominent lymphadenopathy, then a rash that begins on the trunk and spreads peripherally, which may involve the palms, soles and mucous membranes; mortality is around 10%.
Distinction and diagnosis. The lymphadenopathy is characteristic of mpox and was not a feature of smallpox, but the poxviruses can be told apart reliably only by PCR.
Prevention. There is no proven specific treatment, but smallpox vaccination is highly protective.
- MCQ
A branching corneal ulcer seen after fluorescein staining is characteristic of:
- A. Adenoviral keratitis
- B. Herpes simplex keratitis
- C. Measles keratitis
- D. Vaccinial keratitis
- E. Rubella keratitis
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The dendritic ulcer is the classic epithelial lesion of herpes simplex keratitis, best seen with fluorescein.
The other viruses cause different corneal pictures.
- MCQ
A characteristic electrocardiographic finding in acute myocarditis is:
- A. Sinus tachycardia with low-voltage complexes
- B. Isolated tall peaked T waves
- C. A characteristically short PR interval
- D. Prominent post-ectopic U waves
- E. Pre-excitation delta waves
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Sinus tachycardia with low-voltage QRS complexes and T-wave changes is typical, sometimes with a pseudo-infarct pattern or arrhythmia.
Peaked T waves, a short PR, U waves and delta waves point to other conditions.
- MCQ
A child with defective cell-mediated immunity develops measles without a rash. The best explanation is that the measles rash:
- A. Requires bacterial superinfection
- B. Reflects a cell-mediated immune response
- C. Is caused by direct epidermal necrosis
- D. Depends on maternal antibody
- E. Is an IgE-mediated allergic reaction
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The measles rash is largely a cell-mediated immune response to virus in the skin, so a child who cannot mount that response may have measles with no rash, which hinders diagnosis.
It is not driven by bacterial superinfection, direct necrosis, maternal antibody or IgE.
- MCQ
A child with flushed cheeks, circumoral pallor and a lacy rash on the limbs most likely has:
- A. Roseola infantum
- B. Erythema infectiosum
- C. Rubella
- D. Measles
- E. Scarlet fever
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), caused by parvovirus B19, gives the slapped-cheek appearance and a lacy reticular limb rash.
Roseola, rubella, measles and scarlet fever produce different rashes and prodromes.
- MCQ
A clinical feature that helps distinguish mpox from smallpox is:
- A. A synchronous rash
- B. Prominent lymphadenopathy
- C. Involvement of the palms
- D. Healing with scarring
- E. A febrile prodrome
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Prominent lymphadenopathy in the prodrome is characteristic of mpox and was not a feature of smallpox, though PCR is needed to separate the poxviruses reliably.
A febrile prodrome, palmar involvement and scarring occur in both.
- MCQ
A feature that distinguished chickenpox from smallpox was that in chickenpox the lesions:
- A. Were confined to the palms and soles
- B. Were all at the same stage
- C. Never formed vesicles
- D. Were at different stages of evolution
- E. Healed without crusting
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Varicella lesions appear in crops and are at different stages at any one time (macule, papule, vesicle, pustule, crust), whereas smallpox lesions were all synchronous.
The other options do not describe chickenpox.
- MCQ
A negative endomyocardial biopsy does not exclude myocarditis because:
- A. The troponin is usually normal
- B. Inflammation is patchy, often missed
- C. Biopsy cannot detect viral genomes
- D. The Dallas criteria are never used
- E. Only adults can be biopsied safely
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The inflammation is patchy and widely distributed, so sampling frequently misses it, giving biopsy a low and variable sensitivity.
Biopsy can detect genomes by PCR, the Dallas criteria are applied to it, and its risk is greatest, not absent, in small children.
- MCQ
Acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by:
- A. Adenovirus types 8, 19 and 37
- B. Herpes simplex virus type 2
- C. Coxsackievirus A24 and enterovirus 70
- D. Measles and rubella viruses
- E. Cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus
Show answer
Correct answer: C
A variant of coxsackievirus A24 and enterovirus 70 cause acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis, an explosive, self-limiting conjunctivitis with subconjunctival haemorrhages.
Adenovirus 8 and 19 cause epidemic keratoconjunctivitis, not the haemorrhagic form.
- MCQ
Acute haemorrhagic cystitis in an otherwise healthy young boy is characteristically caused by:
- A. Herpes simplex virus
- B. Adenovirus types 11 and 21
- C. Human papillomavirus
- D. Cytomegalovirus
- E. Hantaan virus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Adenovirus types 11 and 21 cause acute haemorrhagic cystitis in young boys; BK polyomavirus causes it in the immunosuppressed.
The other viruses cause different genitourinary problems.
- MCQ
Adenovirus causes eye-clinic epidemics of keratoconjunctivitis mainly because it:
- A. Is spread by mosquito vectors in clinics
- B. Has an unusually long incubation period
- C. Only infects immunosuppressed patients
- D. Resists disinfection and survives on surfaces
- E. Is airborne over long distances indoors
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Adenovirus is non-enveloped, resists disinfection and survives on instruments and surfaces, so it spreads readily in eye clinics through contaminated equipment.
It is not vector-borne or long-range airborne, and it infects the immunocompetent.
- MCQ
An infant has several days of high fever, then a rose-pink truncal rash appears as the fever breaks. The likely cause is:
- A. Measles virus
- B. Parvovirus B19
- C. Human herpesvirus 6
- D. Rubella virus
- E. Coxsackievirus A16
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Roseola infantum (exanthem subitum, sixth disease) is caused by HHV-6 (and HHV-7): high fever precedes a rash that appears as the fever resolves, and it may provoke a febrile seizure.
The other agents do not show this fever-then-rash sequence.
- MCQ
Between recurrences, genital herpes simplex virus remains latent in the:
- A. Genital epithelium
- B. Regional lymph nodes
- C. Circulating lymphocytes
- D. Sacral dorsal root ganglia
- E. Bone marrow
Show answer
Correct answer: D
HSV establishes latency in the sacral dorsal root ganglia, from which it travels down the sensory nerve to cause recurrent genital lesions.
It does not persist latently in epithelium, nodes, lymphocytes or marrow.
- MCQ
CMV retinitis characteristically occurs when the CD4 count falls below:
- A. 500 cells per cubic millimetre
- B. 350 cells per cubic millimetre
- C. 200 cells per cubic millimetre
- D. 100 cells per cubic millimetre
- E. 50 cells per cubic millimetre
Show answer
Correct answer: E
CMV retinitis occurs at a CD4 count below about 50 cells per cubic millimetre, in advanced immunosuppression.
Higher counts are not the typical threshold for CMV retinitis.
- MCQ
Compared with adults, viral myocarditis in newborns is:
- A. Usually mild and self-limiting
- B. Rarely due to enteroviral infection
- C. Almost always acquired postnatally
- D. Best managed with immunosuppression
- E. Often fulminant with high mortality
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Neonatal myocarditis is typically fulminant with high mortality, often acquired in utero and frequently due to coxsackievirus B.
It is not mild, not rarely enteroviral, not exclusively postnatal, and not treated with immunosuppression.
- MCQ
Coxsackievirus B and adenovirus types 2 and 5 enter cardiac cells through:
- A. The sialic acid glycan receptor
- B. The coxsackievirus-adenovirus receptor
- C. The muscarinic acetylcholine receptor
- D. The angiotensin type 1 receptor
- E. The integrin alpha-v beta-3 receptor
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Both share the coxsackievirus and adenovirus receptor (CAR), which is important in cardiac development and is expressed more highly in the young and in dilated cardiomyopathy.
The other receptors listed are not the shared entry route for these agents.
- MCQ
Daily suppressive aciclovir in recurrent genital herpes is used mainly to:
- A. Eradicate latent virus
- B. Cure the infection
- C. Prevent seroconversion
- D. Reverse established immunity
- E. Reduce recurrences and shedding
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Suppressive therapy reduces the frequency of recurrences and of asymptomatic shedding, and hence transmission; it does not cure the infection.
Latent virus is not eradicated, and the other options are not effects of the drug.
- MCQ
Dome-shaped umbilicated skin papules that are florid and widespread in a patient with advanced HIV are most likely:
- A. Herpes zoster
- B. Varicella
- C. Erythema infectiosum
- D. Herpangina
- E. Molluscum contagiosum
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Molluscum contagiosum, a poxvirus infection, causes umbilicated papules that become florid and widespread in advanced HIV, often with facial involvement.
The other conditions do not give umbilicated papules.
- MCQ
Endocardial fibroelastosis has become rare largely because of:
- A. Coxsackievirus B vaccination
- B. Improved neonatal intensive care
- C. Mumps vaccination
- D. Routine antiviral prophylaxis
- E. Antenatal ultrasound screening
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Endocardial fibroelastosis, linked to intrauterine mumps, has all but disappeared since mumps vaccination, supporting a viral cause.
There is no coxsackievirus B vaccine, and the decline is not explained by neonatal care, prophylaxis or screening.
- MCQ
First-line systemic treatment of CMV retinitis is:
- A. Aciclovir or valaciclovir
- B. Oseltamivir or baloxavir
- C. Ganciclovir or valganciclovir
- D. Imiquimod cream topically
- E. Ribavirin and interferon
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Ganciclovir or its oral prodrug valganciclovir is first-line, with foscarnet or cidofovir as alternatives, alongside antiretroviral therapy.
Aciclovir is too weak against CMV, and the other agents are for different viruses.
- MCQ
Genital herpes is most commonly caused by:
- A. Herpes simplex virus type 1
- B. Cytomegalovirus
- C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
- D. Human herpesvirus 6
- E. Varicella-zoster virus
Show answer
Correct answer: C
HSV-2 is the commonest cause of genital herpes, although HSV-1 accounts for an increasing proportion.
The other herpesviruses do not cause genital ulcer disease.
- MCQ
Genital warts (condyloma acuminata) are caused in over 90% of cases by:
- A. Human papillomavirus types 6 and 11
- B. Human papillomavirus types 16 and 18
- C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
- D. Molluscum contagiosum virus
- E. Cytomegalovirus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The low-risk types HPV-6 and HPV-11 cause over 90% of genital warts, which are benign.
Types 16 and 18 are the oncogenic types driving cancer, while the other viruses cause different genital lesions.
- MCQ
Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is most commonly caused by:
- A. Herpes simplex virus
- B. Varicella-zoster virus
- C. Measles virus
- D. Parvovirus B19
- E. Coxsackievirus A16
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Coxsackievirus A16 (and enterovirus 71) cause hand-foot-and-mouth disease, with vesicles on the palms, soles and buccal mucosa.
The other viruses cause different vesicular or maculopapular eruptions.
- MCQ
Human papillomavirus infection is confirmed in the laboratory mainly by:
- A. Detecting viral DNA or mRNA
- B. Viral culture
- C. Antibody serology
- D. Blood film examination
- E. Antigen skin testing
Show answer
Correct answer: A
HPV cannot be cultured and serology is unhelpful, so detection relies on HPV DNA or messenger RNA testing.
The other methods do not reliably detect the virus.
- MCQ
Immunosuppressive therapy in viral myocarditis:
- A. Reliably improves overall survival
- B. Does not improve most outcomes
- C. Reliably eradicates the viral genome
- D. Is the first-line acute treatment
- E. Reliably prevents dilated cardiomyopathy
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The Myocarditis Treatment Trial showed no benefit from immunosuppression in viral myocarditis, though it does help in giant-cell myocarditis.
It neither improves survival routinely, eradicates the virus, serves as first-line therapy, nor prevents dilated cardiomyopathy.
- MCQ
In a patient with chronic haemolytic anaemia, parvovirus B19 characteristically causes:
- A. Autoimmune haemolysis
- B. Iron overload
- C. Polycythaemia
- D. Transient aplastic crisis
- E. Disseminated coagulopathy
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Parvovirus B19 infects erythroid progenitors and halts red-cell production, precipitating a transient aplastic crisis in people with chronic haemolysis who depend on brisk erythropoiesis.
It does not cause autoimmune haemolysis, iron overload, polycythaemia or a coagulopathy.
- MCQ
In a renal-transplant recipient, reactivation of BK polyomavirus characteristically causes:
- A. Genital ulceration
- B. Acute glomerulonephritis
- C. An allograft nephropathy
- D. Cervical dysplasia
- E. Haemorrhagic fever
Show answer
Correct answer: C
BK polyomavirus reactivates under immunosuppression to cause an allograft nephropathy that can mimic graft rejection, as well as haemorrhagic cystitis in bone-marrow recipients.
It does not cause the other listed conditions.
- MCQ
In addition to rehydration, which measure reduces the severity and duration of childhood diarrhoea in low-income settings?
- A. Prophylactic antibiotics
- B. High-dose vitamin A
- C. Antimotility drugs
- D. Oral immunoglobulin
- E. Zinc supplementation
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Zinc supplementation reduces the severity, duration and incidence of childhood diarrhoea and is a mainstay of paediatric treatment in low- and middle-income countries.
Antibiotics, vitamin A, antimotility drugs and immunoglobulin are not routine adjuncts for uncomplicated viral gastroenteritis.
- MCQ
In herpes zoster ophthalmicus, a vesicle on the tip of the nose (Hutchinson's sign) indicates:
- A. A benign and self-limiting clinical course
- B. Nasociliary involvement and likely ocular disease
- C. Secondary bacterial superinfection of lesions
- D. Widely disseminated cutaneous zoster
- E. Imminent resolution of the infection
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Hutchinson’s sign reflects involvement of the nasociliary branch of the trigeminal nerve and predicts ocular disease in about half of cases.
It is not a sign of benign disease, superinfection, dissemination or resolution.
- MCQ
In suspected viral myocarditis, a raised troponin:
- A. Indicates myocyte injury but is non-specific
- B. Confirms the viral aetiology of disease
- C. Excludes any pericardial involvement
- D. Is characteristically normal in myocarditis
- E. Distinguishes coxsackievirus from adenovirus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Troponin marks myocardial injury but is not specific for myocarditis or for a viral cause, so it is interpreted in clinical context.
It does not confirm a viral aetiology, exclude pericarditis, stay normal, or identify the agent.
- MCQ
Intravenous rehydration is preferred over oral therapy when:
- A. The child has mild watery diarrhoea
- B. Vomiting has occurred once or twice
- C. There is severe dehydration or shock
- D. The stool contains no blood or mucus
- E. There is only a low-grade fever
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Severe dehydration (about a 10% deficit), shock or near-shock, intractable vomiting or failure of oral therapy call for intravenous fluids.
Mild diarrhoea, occasional vomiting, non-bloody stool and low-grade fever are all managed with oral rehydration.
- MCQ
Myocardial injury in viral myocarditis results from:
- A. Coronary occlusion and ischaemic necrosis
- B. A preformed circulating bacterial toxin
- C. Autoantibody deposition acting alone
- D. Direct viral injury then immune attack
- E. Bacterial microabscess formation
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Injury occurs in two phases: direct viral damage to myocytes, then immune-mediated injury by cytotoxic and autoreactive T cells.
The process is not ischaemic, not toxin-mediated, not purely autoantibody-driven, and microabscesses indicate bacterial rather than viral disease.
- MCQ
Parvovirus B19 is now the virus most often detected on European myocardial biopsy, but:
- A. It is the commonest cause worldwide
- B. It only infects neonates
- C. Its causal role is difficult to prove
- D. It is easily grown in culture
- E. It never persists in the myocardium
Show answer
Correct answer: C
A causal role is hard to affirm because the parvovirus B19 genome persists in many hearts without disease, so detection does not prove causation.
It is not the established commonest cause, is not neonate-restricted, is not readily cultured, and does persist in the myocardium.
- MCQ
Regarding antibiotics in uncomplicated viral gastroenteritis:
- A. They shorten the clinical illness
- B. They reliably prevent dehydration
- C. They are required once vomiting starts
- D. They have no role and may cause harm
- E. They eradicate viral shedding
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Antibiotics have no role in uncomplicated viral gastroenteritis and may cause harm, including antibiotic-resistant carriage and adverse events.
They neither shorten the illness, prevent dehydration, nor eradicate shedding, and vomiting is not an indication for them.
- MCQ
Regarding infectivity of viral skin lesions:
- A. Maculopapular rashes shed abundant virus
- B. Virus is not shed from any skin lesion
- C. Vesicular lesions shed infectious virus
- D. Only pustules are infectious
- E. Crusts remain highly infectious for months
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Virus is readily recovered from the fluid of vesicular lesions, whereas maculopapular rashes shed little or no virus, which is why varicella and zoster require contact and airborne precautions.
Some virus is present in lesions generally, but the vesicle fluid is the infectious source, not maculopapular rashes, pustules alone or old crusts.
- MCQ
Relative resistance to the predominant norovirus genotype is associated with:
- A. A nonsecretor (FUT2) phenotype
- B. Blood group O phenotype
- C. Prior rotavirus vaccination
- D. Deficiency of secretory IgA
- E. Cystic fibrosis carriage
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Norovirus attaches to histo-blood-group antigens on the gut mucosa, so an inactivating FUT2 mutation (the nonsecretor phenotype) confers relative resistance to the dominant GII.4 genotype.
Blood group O, vaccination, IgA deficiency and cystic fibrosis do not confer this genetic resistance.
- MCQ
Rotavirus belongs to which family and carries which genome?
- A. Caliciviridae, positive-sense single-stranded RNA
- B. Astroviridae, positive-sense single-stranded RNA
- C. Reoviridae, segmented double-stranded RNA
- D. Adenoviridae, double-stranded DNA
- E. Picornaviridae, single-stranded RNA
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Rotavirus is a reovirus with 11 segments of double-stranded RNA, the segmentation allowing reassortment and genotype diversity.
The caliciviruses (norovirus, sapovirus) and astroviruses carry single-stranded RNA; the enteric adenoviruses carry double-stranded DNA.
- MCQ
Rotavirus is most readily detected in a child's stool by:
- A. Reverse-transcription PCR only
- B. Viral culture on cell lines
- C. A rapid antigen enzyme immunoassay
- D. A blood antibody titre
- E. Electron microscopy alone
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Rotavirus is shed in huge numbers and is easily detected by a rapid, sensitive stool antigen enzyme immunoassay, which is cheap and field-usable.
PCR works but is not required, culture is not routine, and serology and electron microscopy are not first-line for the individual case.
- MCQ
Rotavirus produces secretory diarrhoea largely through:
- A. Invasion and ulceration of the colonic mucosa
- B. A preformed toxin ingested with contaminated food
- C. Autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells
- D. A non-structural protein acting as an enterotoxin
- E. A systemic pro-inflammatory cytokine storm
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The rotavirus non-structural protein NSP4 acts as a viral enterotoxin, raising intracellular calcium and driving chloride and water secretion, so diarrhoea occurs without tissue invasion.
There is no mucosal invasion or preformed food toxin, and the mechanism is not autoimmune or a cytokine storm.
- MCQ
Screening for cervical pre-cancer is based on:
- A. Blood antibody titres
- B. Cytology with high-risk HPV testing
- C. Viral culture of a cervical swab
- D. Plain pelvic radiography
- E. Urine dipstick testing
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Cervical screening uses cervical cytology (the Pap smear) together with, and increasingly replaced by, high-risk HPV DNA testing, with colposcopy for positive results.
Serology, culture, radiography and urine testing have no role in cervical screening.
- MCQ
The adenovirus types that characteristically cause endemic childhood diarrhoea are:
- A. Types 3 and 7
- B. Types 40 and 41
- C. Types 8 and 19
- D. Types 4 and 14
- E. Types 1 and 2
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The enteric adenoviruses, types 40 and 41, cause endemic childhood gastroenteritis.
Types 3 and 7 cause respiratory and conjunctival disease, types 8 and 19 keratoconjunctivitis, type 14 severe respiratory outbreaks, and types 1 and 2 common childhood respiratory infection.
- MCQ
The characteristic fundoscopic and histological picture of CMV retinitis is:
- A. Pizza-pie retinitis with owl's eye inclusions
- B. Diffuse bilateral cotton-wool spots only
- C. A cherry-red spot at the macula
- D. Isolated swelling of the optic disc
- E. A salt-and-pepper pigmentary retinopathy
Show answer
Correct answer: A
CMV retinitis shows a “pizza-pie” fundus of necrosis and haemorrhage, with owl’s eye intranuclear inclusions histologically.
Cotton-wool spots suggest HIV retinopathy, and salt-and-pepper retinopathy congenital rubella.
- MCQ
The classic congenital ocular triad of congenital rubella is:
- A. Owl's eye intranuclear inclusion bodies
- B. Cataract, pigmentary retinopathy and glaucoma
- C. A branching dendritic corneal ulcer
- D. Acute haemorrhagic viral conjunctivitis
- E. Conjunctival Kaposi sarcoma lesions
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Congenital rubella causes cataract, a salt-and-pepper pigmentary retinopathy, glaucoma and microphthalmia.
The other findings belong to CMV, HSV, enterovirus and HHV-8 respectively.
- MCQ
The commonest cause of childhood corneal blindness in low-income countries, treated in part with vitamin A, is:
- A. Adenovirus
- B. Herpes simplex virus
- C. Cytomegalovirus
- D. Chlamydia trachomatis
- E. Measles virus
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Measles is the commonest viral cause of childhood blindness in developing countries, causing keratomalacia and corneal ulceration where vitamin A deficiency coexists; vitamin A is a treatment priority.
The other viruses are not the leading cause of childhood corneal blindness.
- MCQ
The commonest cause of severe dehydrating diarrhoea in young children worldwide is:
- A. Rotavirus
- B. Norovirus
- C. Astrovirus
- D. Enteric adenovirus
- E. Sapovirus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Rotavirus is globally the leading cause of severe childhood gastroenteritis, because it best combines high infectivity with a heavy inoculum and severe fluid loss in the under-fives.
Norovirus dominates outbreaks and, where rotavirus vaccine is used, endemic disease; astrovirus, adenovirus and sapovirus cause milder endemic illness.
- MCQ
The commonest important complication of herpes zoster is:
- A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- B. Aplastic crisis
- C. Postherpetic neuralgia
- D. Congenital malformation
- E. Nephrotic syndrome
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Postherpetic neuralgia, pain persisting beyond 8 to 12 weeks, is the commonest important complication of shingles, and its risk rises with age.
The other conditions are not complications of herpes zoster.
- MCQ
The commonest sight-threatening form of ocular herpes simplex is:
- A. Follicular conjunctivitis
- B. Blepharitis
- C. Stromal keratitis
- D. Episcleritis
- E. Dacryoadenitis
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Stromal keratitis is the commonest sight-threatening manifestation, an immune-mediated reaction that scars the cornea and may require a graft.
The other manifestations rarely threaten sight.
- MCQ
The commonest viral cause of conjunctivitis is:
- A. Adenovirus
- B. Herpes simplex virus
- C. Cytomegalovirus
- D. Measles virus
- E. Enterovirus 70
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Adenovirus is the commonest cause of viral conjunctivitis and of eye-clinic epidemics.
The others cause conjunctivitis less often or in specific settings.
- MCQ
The commonest viral cause of myocarditis is:
- A. Coxsackievirus B
- B. Respiratory syncytial virus
- C. Herpes simplex virus
- D. Rotavirus
- E. Rhinovirus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The enteroviruses, above all coxsackievirus B, are the classical and commonest cause of viral myocarditis.
The other viruses can involve the heart but do so far less often, and rhinovirus and rotavirus are essentially confined to the respiratory and enteric tracts.
- MCQ
The Dallas criteria classify myocarditis on the basis of:
- A. Serum troponin concentration
- B. Echocardiographic ejection fraction
- C. Histology of an endomyocardial biopsy
- D. The PCR viral load in blood
- E. The chest radiograph appearance
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The Dallas criteria are histopathological, grading a biopsy as active, borderline or no myocarditis by the infiltrate and myocyte damage.
They are not based on troponin, ejection fraction, blood viral load or the chest film.
- MCQ
The diagnostic test of choice for a genital ulcer suspected to be herpetic is:
- A. Viral culture of the ulcer
- B. Serum IgG serology
- C. Tzanck smear microscopy
- D. Electron microscopy
- E. PCR of an ulcer swab
Show answer
Correct answer: E
PCR of a swab from the ulcer or vesicle is the test of choice, being far more sensitive than culture.
Serology dates past infection but not the acute lesion, and the Tzanck smear and electron microscopy are insensitive and non-specific.
- MCQ
The enteroviral protease 2A contributes to dilated cardiomyopathy by:
- A. Activating the renin-angiotensin system
- B. Inducing coronary vasospasm
- C. Blocking beta-adrenergic receptors
- D. Stimulating fibroblast collagen synthesis
- E. Cleaving the cytoskeletal protein dystrophin
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Protease 2A cleaves dystrophin, the cytoskeletal protein whose inherited mutation causes familial dilated cardiomyopathy and the cardiomyopathy of Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy, giving a direct link to chronic disease.
The other mechanisms are not how protease 2A damages the myocardium.
- MCQ
The human papillomavirus types most responsible for cervical cancer are:
- A. Types 6 and 11
- B. Types 16 and 18
- C. Types 1 and 2
- D. Types 40 and 41
- E. Types 3 and 5
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The high-risk types HPV-16 and HPV-18 cause about 70% of cervical cancer and a large share of other anogenital and oropharyngeal cancers.
The other types cause benign warts (6/11, 1/2), enteric disease (40/41) or epidermodysplasia verruciformis (5).
- MCQ
The laboratory method of choice for confirming norovirus is:
- A. Antigen enzyme immunoassay
- B. Reverse-transcription PCR
- C. Viral culture
- D. Electron microscopy
- E. Serology on acute serum
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Reverse-transcription PCR is the method of choice for norovirus, being highly sensitive; genotyping the product links outbreak cases.
Antigen assays have low sensitivity, the virus is not readily cultured, and electron microscopy and single-sample serology are insensitive or impractical.
- MCQ
The mainstay of treatment for a child with viral gastroenteritis is:
- A. Empirical broad-spectrum oral antibiotics
- B. An antimotility agent such as loperamide
- C. Routine intravenous fluid replacement
- D. Low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution
- E. A specific oral antiviral agent
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution is the mainstay, correcting the fluid and electrolyte loss that causes death; breastfeeding and early refeeding continue.
Antibiotics have no role, antimotility drugs are avoided in young children, intravenous fluids are reserved for severe cases, and no specific antiviral exists.
- MCQ
The mean incubation period of genital warts after exposure to HPV is about:
- A. 24 hours
- B. One week
- C. 2 to 3 months
- D. 2 years
- E. 10 years
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Genital warts appear after a mean incubation of about 2 to 3 months (ranging from 3 weeks to beyond 8 months).
The other intervals are too short or too long.
- MCQ
The most sensitive laboratory method for diagnosing an intraocular viral infection is:
- A. PCR of ocular fluid
- B. Viral culture
- C. Antigen detection
- D. Serum serology alone
- E. Electron microscopy
Show answer
Correct answer: A
PCR of the aqueous or vitreous fluid is the most sensitive method, more so than culture or antigen detection; intraocular antibody production can be quantified by the Goldmann-Witmer coefficient.
The other methods are less sensitive for intraocular infection.
- MCQ
The most sensitive test to confirm the cause of a vesicular rash is:
- A. PCR of vesicle fluid
- B. Viral culture of the vesicle
- C. A Tzanck smear
- D. Acute-phase serology
- E. Electron microscopy
Show answer
Correct answer: A
PCR on vesicle fluid is the most sensitive test and has largely replaced culture for herpes simplex and varicella-zoster.
A Tzanck smear is quick but non-specific, culture is insensitive, and serology and electron microscopy are second-line.
- MCQ
The most useful non-invasive imaging test for myocardial inflammation is:
- A. Plain chest radiography of the thorax
- B. The resting twelve-lead electrocardiogram
- C. Invasive coronary angiography
- D. Gadolinium cardiac magnetic resonance
- E. Transabdominal ultrasound scanning
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium maps the site and extent of myocardial inflammation and has become a valuable non-invasive test.
The chest film and electrocardiogram are non-specific, angiography is invasive and assesses coronaries, and abdominal ultrasound is irrelevant.
- MCQ
The principal reason to control rubella is that infection:
- A. In early pregnancy harms the fetus
- B. Causes severe disease in the patient
- C. Frequently leads to encephalitis
- D. Commonly causes pneumonia
- E. Reactivates as shingles later
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Rubella itself is mild, but infection in early pregnancy causes the congenital rubella syndrome, so control protects the fetus rather than the patient.
Rubella does not typically cause severe patient illness, encephalitis, pneumonia or later reactivation.
- MCQ
The rash of measles characteristically:
- A. Spreads downward from the head
- B. Begins on the hands and feet
- C. Appears in asynchronous crops
- D. Is confined to a single dermatome
- E. Spares the face and neck
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The morbilliform measles rash spreads from the forehead and behind the ears downward to the trunk, limbs, palms and soles, following the prodrome and Koplik spots.
Acral onset, cropping, dermatomal confinement and facial sparing describe other eruptions.
- MCQ
The topical agent imiquimod clears genital warts by:
- A. Directly lysing infected keratinocytes
- B. Inhibiting the viral DNA polymerase
- C. Chemically cauterising the lesion
- D. Acting as a Toll-like receptor 7 agonist
- E. Blocking viral attachment
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Imiquimod is a Toll-like receptor 7 agonist that induces interferon and other cytokines, giving a low recurrence rate after clearance.
It is not directly cytolytic, a polymerase inhibitor, a caustic agent, or an entry blocker.
- MCQ
The virus responsible for most outbreaks of acute gastroenteritis across all age groups is:
- A. Rotavirus group A
- B. Norovirus
- C. Astrovirus
- D. Adenovirus 40/41
- E. Sapovirus
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Norovirus causes most gastroenteritis outbreaks, spreading rapidly in hospitals, care homes, cruise ships and around contaminated food and water.
The other agents cause mainly endemic childhood diarrhoea; group A rotavirus is the endemic paediatric leader rather than an outbreak agent.
- MCQ
Topical corticosteroids used alone for herpes simplex epithelial keratitis:
- A. Rapidly cure the underlying infection
- B. Prevent all stromal corneal scarring
- C. Have no effect on viral replication
- D. Worsen it, causing geographical ulcers
- E. Eradicate latent trigeminal virus
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Steroids let the virus replicate freely, enlarging a dendritic ulcer into a geographical ulcer, so they are never used alone for epithelial keratitis; under antiviral cover they help control stromal inflammation.
They neither cure nor prevent scarring when used alone.
- MCQ
Which feature best explains the explosive spread of norovirus in closed settings?
- A. A low infectious dose and hardy virions
- B. An exclusively water-borne transmission route
- C. A long latent period before symptoms
- D. Spread only by respiratory droplets
- E. Reliance on an arthropod vector
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Norovirus needs fewer than 100 particles to infect and is a non-enveloped virus that survives on surfaces, so it transmits readily by contact, food, water and aerosolised vomitus.
It is not confined to water or droplets, has a short incubation, and needs no vector.
- MCQ
Which feature points away from viral gastroenteritis and towards invasive bacterial infection?
- A. Watery non-bloody stool
- B. Vomiting at the onset
- C. A low-grade fever
- D. Illness lasting three to five days
- E. Blood and mucus in the stool
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Blood and mucus in the stool indicate an invasive, inflammatory process such as bacterial dysentery, which is not a feature of viral gastroenteritis.
Watery non-bloody stool, early vomiting, low-grade fever and a three-to-five-day course are all typical of the viral illness.
- MCQ
Which virus is sexually transmitted but causes no disease in the genital tract itself?
- A. HIV
- B. Herpes simplex virus type 2
- C. Human papillomavirus type 11
- D. Human papillomavirus type 16
- E. Molluscum contagiosum virus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
HIV is transmitted sexually but produces systemic immunodeficiency, not genital-tract disease.
Genital HSV-2, HPV warts and cancers, and genital molluscum are all organ-tropic infections of the genital tract.