Questions
Polio — Questions
Study questions for the Polio topic — exam-style, clinical-scenario and FAQ.
Mock Exam mode
Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.
42 questions: 33 MCQ, 9 written.
High priorityClinical scenarioAn 11-month-old boy presents with acute flaccid paralysis of one leg. MRI shows signal change in the anterior horn of the spinal cord. In-house enterovirus PCR is performed on two samples: Sample 1 (cerebrospinal fluid): enterovirus PCR negative; Sample 2 (stool): enterovirus PCR positive. a. Interpret these results and their significance. b. Outline the routine investigations required in a child with this presentation. c. State the key infection prevention and control considerations. [6]
Model answer
a. The pattern is characteristic: enteroviruses (including poliovirus) are shed abundantly in stool but only rarely reach the cerebrospinal fluid, so a positive stool with a negative CSF PCR is the expected finding and does not weaken the diagnosis. It does not, on its own, prove causation, because enteroviruses are commonly carried in the gut, but combined with acute flaccid paralysis and anterior-horn signal on MRI it strongly suggests a poliovirus-like (anterior-horn) process that must be treated as possible polio until excluded.
b. Investigate as an acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) case: notify immediately, and collect two stool specimens 24 to 48 hours apart, both within 14 days of onset, sent under reverse cold chain to the National Institute for Communicable Diseases for poliovirus isolation and intratypic differentiation (to distinguish wild, Sabin-like and vaccine-derived virus). Record the vaccination history and arrange the 60-day follow-up for residual paralysis.
c. Poliovirus and other enteroviruses spread faecal-orally, so apply enteric (contact) precautions with strict hand hygiene and safe disposal of stool, and manage the case as a potential public-health emergency pending virology.
High prioritySAQA young adult has a shortened, wasted lower limb dating from a febrile paralytic illness in infancy. Give the clinical diagnosis, and contrast the Salk (inactivated) and Sabin (live attenuated) polio vaccines. [5]
Model answer
The picture is residual paralytic poliomyelitis: asymmetric lower-motor-neuron paralysis in infancy leaving a wasted, shortened limb with preserved sensation.
- Salk (inactivated poliovirus vaccine, IPV). A formalin-inactivated preparation given by injection. It raises serum neutralising antibody that protects the individual from paralysis but induces little gut mucosal immunity, cannot cause polio, and is safe in immunocompromised people.
- Sabin (oral poliovirus vaccine, OPV). A live attenuated vaccine given by mouth. Because it replicates in the gut it induces both serum antibody and strong mucosal immunity, interrupting transmission, and it is cheap and needle-free. Its drawback is that the live virus can revert to neurovirulence, rarely causing vaccine-associated paralysis and, on spread, vaccine-derived poliovirus; it is contraindicated in immunocompromise.
High prioritySAQExplain what cVDPV means, and name and describe the vaccine used to counter it. [4]
Model answer
- cVDPV. A circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus is oral-vaccine (Sabin) virus that has regained neurovirulence and transmissibility through mutation and then spread person to person in an undervaccinated population, causing outbreaks indistinguishable from wild polio. Most are type 2.
- Counter-vaccine. Novel oral poliovirus vaccine type 2 (nOPV2) is a Sabin type 2 vaccine engineered for genetic stability (its principal attenuating site is locked and reinforced), so it gives the mucosal, transmission-blocking immunity of an oral vaccine while reverting far less readily, and it is used for type 2 outbreak response.
High prioritySAQName the family poliovirus belongs to, the countries endemic for wild poliovirus, and which wild types still circulate. [3]
Model answer
- Family. Poliovirus is a member of the family Picornaviridae (genus Enterovirus).
- Endemic countries. Wild poliovirus remains endemic only in Afghanistan and Pakistan.
- Circulating wild types. Only wild type 1 still circulates; wild types 2 and 3 have been declared eradicated (in 2015 and 2019 respectively).
High prioritySAQOutline the current status of global polio eradication. [5]
Model answer
Global polio eradication is close but not complete, and the picture now has two distinct strands, wild virus and vaccine-derived virus.
- Wild poliovirus. Wild poliovirus type 1 remains endemic in only two countries, Afghanistan and Pakistan. Wild type 2 was declared eradicated in 2015 and wild type 3 in 2019, so type 1 is the only wild type still circulating.
- Vaccine-derived poliovirus. Circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus, overwhelmingly type 2, now causes most of the world’s remaining paralytic polio, chiefly in undervaccinated parts of Africa and the Eastern Mediterranean.
- Overall progress. Cases have fallen by about 99.9% since the Global Polio Eradication Initiative began in 1988.
- Certification. The WHO African Region was certified free of wild poliovirus in 2020; surveillance and immunisation continue everywhere because importation and vaccine-derived virus remain threats.
High prioritySAQWhat is deemed satisfactory acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) surveillance? Describe the stool specimen collection specifications and the principles for assessing surveillance adequacy. [5]
Model answer
Satisfactory AFP surveillance means the system is both sensitive enough to detect every case that could be polio and reliable enough to investigate each properly.
- Specimen collection. Collect two stool specimens, 24 to 48 hours apart, both within 14 days of the onset of paralysis (the window of peak shedding). Keep them in a reverse cold chain at 4 to 8 degrees Celsius and deliver them to a WHO-accredited laboratory within 3 days. A case meeting these conditions is “adequately investigated”.
- Sensitivity. The non-polio AFP rate (target at least 1 per 100,000 children under 15, or at least 2 in priority regions) confirms the system is finding the expected background of non-polio paralysis and would therefore have caught polio.
- Specimen quality. At least 80% of cases must have adequate stools, with supporting laboratory indicators such as non-polio enterovirus isolation in at least 10% of specimens (a proxy that the cold chain held).
- Timeliness and closure. Cases are reported and investigated promptly, with a 60-day follow-up for residual paralysis and final expert classification.
High prioritySAQWrite short notes on the current polio-endgame strategy. [5]
Model answer
The endgame is the plan to move from near-elimination to a permanently polio-free world, and its central problem is that the live oral vaccine can itself cause and sustain disease.
- Interrupt wild transmission. Finish interrupting wild poliovirus type 1 in Afghanistan and Pakistan through high routine coverage, supplementary campaigns and surveillance.
- Withdraw the oral vaccine in steps. Because oral vaccine can revert, it is removed serotype by serotype once each wild type is eradicated. The 2016 switch from trivalent to bivalent oral vaccine withdrew the type 2 component globally.
- Fill the gap with inactivated vaccine. Inactivated poliovirus vaccine was introduced into routine schedules to maintain type 2 immunity without live type 2 virus.
- Use safer outbreak tools. Genetically stabilised novel oral poliovirus vaccine type 2 (nOPV2) responds to type 2 outbreaks with far less risk of seeding new vaccine-derived virus.
- Contain and certify. Remaining poliovirus stocks are contained under the Global Action Plan, and eradication is confirmed through formal certification backed by sustained surveillance.
High priorityExam-styleDiscuss the control of, and outbreak response to, type 2 poliovirus as part of the polio endgame strategy. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer explains why type 2 is a special case in the endgame, the immunity gap that OPV2 withdrawal created, and the tools now used to respond to type 2 outbreaks.
The type 2 problem
Wild poliovirus type 2 was declared eradicated in 2015, so keeping the type 2 component in oral vaccine meant accepting type 2 vaccine-associated paralysis and vaccine-derived virus for no benefit. In the 2016 “switch”, trivalent oral vaccine was replaced globally by bivalent (types 1 and 3), and inactivated poliovirus vaccine was added to routine schedules to preserve type 2 immunity without live type 2 virus.
The immunity gap and cVDPV2
Withdrawing live type 2 virus let population mucosal immunity to type 2 fall, while circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus type 2 (cVDPV2) seeded before and after the switch continued to spread, and it is now the dominant cause of paralytic polio worldwide.
Outbreak response
Outbreaks are found by AFP and environmental surveillance and answered with rapid, high-coverage campaigns. Response historically used monovalent type 2 oral vaccine (mOPV2), but this reintroduces live type 2 virus and can itself seed further cVDPV2. The current tool is novel oral poliovirus vaccine type 2 (nOPV2), engineered for genetic stability so it reverts far less readily, alongside containment of type 2 materials in secured facilities.
High priorityExam-styleFractional-dose inactivated poliovirus vaccine (a fifth of the full dose, given intradermally) has been studied as a dose-sparing option. Discuss its role and the public-health implications for vaccine-derived polio outbreaks. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer covers what fractional dosing achieves, its immunological limits, and where it fits in outbreak response.
The case for fractional dosing. Giving a fifth of a full inactivated vaccine dose intradermally stretches a constrained global supply of inactivated vaccine across far more children, and studies show seroconversion and priming comparable to the full intramuscular dose. In a supply-limited emergency this lets a programme protect more people from paralysis with the vaccine available.
The immunological limit. Inactivated vaccine, at any dose, raises serum antibody that prevents paralytic disease but induces little intestinal mucosal immunity, so a vaccinated child can still be infected and shed virus. Fractional dosing does not change this: it protects individuals but does little to interrupt faecal-oral transmission.
Implications for vaccine-derived outbreaks. Because circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus spreads through the gut, controlling an outbreak needs the transmission-blocking mucosal immunity that oral vaccine provides. Fractional inactivated vaccine is therefore best understood as a dose-sparing way to protect against paralysis and extend coverage, complementing rather than replacing the oral vaccine used to stop transmission, and it remains constrained by the need for intradermal delivery and a cold chain.
- MCQ
A region qualifies for wild-poliovirus-free certification only after every country has recorded no wild poliovirus, under certification-standard surveillance, for at least:
- A. One year
- B. Three years
- C. Five years
- D. Ten years
- E. Two years
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Certification requires three consecutive years with no wild poliovirus in every country, under certification-standard surveillance, alongside high routine immunisation and readiness to respond to importation.
Shorter intervals would risk certifying a region while undetected transmission continued; the three-year rule allows for the low ratio of paralytic cases to infections.
- MCQ
A vaccine-derived poliovirus isolated from a person with a B-cell immunodeficiency who has excreted it for years is termed a/an:
- A. Immunodeficiency-associated VDPV (iVDPV)
- B. Circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus (cVDPV)
- C. Ambiguous vaccine-derived poliovirus (aVDPV)
- D. Sabin-like vaccine poliovirus
- E. Wild-type poliovirus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
An immunodeficiency-associated VDPV (iVDPV) arises in a person with a B-cell immunodeficiency who cannot clear the vaccine virus and excretes it for months to years, forming a hidden long-term reservoir.
A circulating VDPV shows community person-to-person transmission; an ambiguous VDPV has neither demonstrated transmission nor an identified immunodeficient source, or is an environmental isolate.
- MCQ
An oral-vaccine poliovirus isolate is classified as a vaccine-derived poliovirus when its VP1 sequence has diverged from the parent strain by about:
- A. A single nucleotide change from parent
- B. Half or more of the VP1 gene
- C. Any detectable change from Sabin
- D. At least 5 to 10% of the genome
- E. 1% (types 1 and 3) or 0.6% (type 2)
Show answer
Correct answer: E
A VP1 divergence of about 1% (roughly 10 nucleotides) for types 1 and 3, or 0.6% (roughly 6 nucleotides) for type 2, defines a vaccine-derived poliovirus. That degree of drift implies prolonged replication and transmission well beyond a single vaccinee.
A single change or any detectable change would capture normal early vaccine evolution, while 50% divergence is far beyond even wild-type differences.
- MCQ
As applied to polio, the term "eradication" of the disease means:
- A. Cases cut to a locally acceptable level
- B. Regional zero, with control still needed
- C. Permanent worldwide zero, so control can stop
- D. The agent gone even from laboratories
- E. Transmission halted for one calendar year
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Eradication is the permanent reduction to zero of the worldwide incidence of infection, after which control measures can be stopped altogether. This is the goal for polio, as it was for smallpox.
Reduction to a locally acceptable level is control, and regional zero with continued control is elimination. The absence of the agent even from laboratories is extinction, a further state beyond eradication.
- MCQ
As of 2026, wild poliovirus type 1 remains endemic in:
- A. Nigeria and Chad
- B. Afghanistan and Pakistan
- C. India and Bangladesh
- D. Syria and Yemen
- E. The Democratic Republic of the Congo
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Wild poliovirus type 1 is now endemic in only two countries, Afghanistan and Pakistan. Vaccine-derived strains circulate more widely, so the affected-country list changes and must be checked at the time of travel.
Nigeria and India are among the countries that have interrupted wild poliovirus transmission.
- MCQ
Compared with inactivated poliovirus vaccine, the oral (Sabin) vaccine additionally provides:
- A. Strong intestinal mucosal immunity
- B. Longer-lasting serum antibody
- C. Protection against all enteroviruses
- D. Safety in immunocompromised hosts
- E. Freedom from any risk of paralysis
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Because it replicates in the gut, oral vaccine induces strong intestinal mucosal immunity (secretory IgA) that blocks faecal-oral transmission, which the injected inactivated vaccine does not efficiently provide.
The trade-off runs the other way for the rest: inactivated vaccine is the one that is safe in immunocompromised hosts and carries no risk of vaccine-associated paralysis, and neither vaccine protects against non-polio enteroviruses.
- MCQ
For adequate AFP investigation, the two stool specimens should be collected:
- A. On a single day, a few hours apart
- B. Weekly, across three consecutive weeks
- C. Once only, as early as possible after onset
- D. In one batch, after the 60-day review
- E. 24 to 48 hours apart, within 14 days of onset
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Two specimens are collected 24 to 48 hours apart, both within 14 days of the onset of paralysis, the window of peak viral shedding. Two separated specimens improve the chance of isolating an intermittently shed virus.
A single specimen, or specimens taken outside the 14-day window or after the 60-day review, does not meet the adequacy standard.
- MCQ
In a child with acute flaccid paralysis, which feature favours Guillain-Barre syndrome over poliomyelitis?
- A. Asymmetric weakness of one limb
- B. Fever at the onset of paralysis
- C. Purely motor involvement
- D. Rapid progression over a few days
- E. Symmetric weakness with sensory loss
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Guillain-Barre syndrome is typically symmetric and ascending with sensory involvement and albuminocytological dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid, and is usually afebrile.
Poliomyelitis is the opposite: asymmetric, purely motor, with fever at onset. Both can progress quickly, so progression rate does not discriminate.
- MCQ
In a susceptible population, the approximate proportion of poliovirus infections that result in paralysis is:
- A. About half
- B. About one in ten
- C. About one in twenty
- D. About one in two hundred
- E. Nearly all
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Over 90% of infections are asymptomatic, and on average only about 1 in 200 infections in a susceptible population results in paralytic disease. Most of the remainder are a minor febrile illness or a non-paralytic aseptic meningitis.
The low ratio of paralytic cases to infections is why surveillance must detect every case, and why environmental sampling can reveal circulation that no clinical case would show.
- MCQ
In AFP surveillance, the non-polio AFP rate is used as the key indicator of:
- A. Vaccine coverage in infants
- B. Laboratory turnaround time
- C. The proportion that are true polio
- D. Surveillance sensitivity
- E. Cold-chain integrity
Show answer
Correct answer: D
A predictable background of acute flaccid paralysis from other causes occurs in any child population, so a system that is finding that background (at least 1 per 100,000 children under 15, or 2 in priority regions) is sensitive enough to have caught polio. The rate is therefore the measure of surveillance sensitivity.
Specimen quality is measured separately by the stool adequacy rate, and laboratory indicators track turnaround and cold-chain integrity.
- MCQ
Inactivated poliovirus vaccine prevents paralytic polio but, unlike the oral vaccine, does not efficiently:
- A. Block replication of poliovirus in the gut
- B. Induce serum neutralising antibody
- C. Protect the vaccinated individual
- D. Prevent viral invasion of the central nervous system
- E. Generate immunological memory
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Being injected, the inactivated vaccine raises serum antibody but little mucosal immunoglobulin A, so it does not stop the virus replicating in and shedding from the gut. It protects the individual from paralysis without fully interrupting transmission, the reason oral vaccine is still used for outbreak control.
It does induce serum antibody, individual protection and memory, and it does prevent invasion of the nervous system.
- MCQ
Intratypic differentiation of a poliovirus isolate is performed to:
- A. Measure the patient's serum antibody titre
- B. Grow the isolate in the two cell lines
- C. Assess the stool specimen's adequacy
- D. Separate wild, Sabin and vaccine-derived virus
- E. Confirm the reverse cold chain was intact
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Intratypic differentiation, a real-time PCR followed where needed by VP1 sequencing, assigns the serotype and separates wild poliovirus, Sabin-like vaccine virus and vaccine-derived poliovirus. This distinction drives the entire public-health response.
Culture precedes differentiation, and specimen adequacy and cold chain are assessed at collection and receipt, not by this step.
- MCQ
Novel oral poliovirus vaccine type 2 (nOPV2) was developed mainly to:
- A. Provide the first injectable type 2 vaccine
- B. Replace inactivated vaccine in routine use
- C. Cover wild poliovirus type 1
- D. Resist reversion to neurovirulence
- E. Shorten the vaccination schedule
Show answer
Correct answer: D
nOPV2 is a Sabin type 2 vaccine engineered for genetic stability, with the domain V determinant locked and other changes that make reversion far less likely, so it gives oral-vaccine mucosal immunity while greatly reducing the risk of seeding new cVDPV2. It is used for type 2 outbreak response.
It remains an oral type 2 vaccine, not an injectable, a type 1 product, or a replacement for routine inactivated vaccine.
- MCQ
Poliovirus is classified within which family, and how many serotypes does it have?
- A. Flaviviridae; a single serotype
- B. Picornaviridae; three serotypes
- C. Togaviridae; two serotypes
- D. Paramyxoviridae; four serotypes
- E. Reoviridae; three serotypes
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Poliovirus is a picornavirus (genus Enterovirus, species Enterovirus coxsackiepol) with three serotypes, 1, 2 and 3. The serotypes do not cross-protect, so immunity is needed against all three.
It is a small non-enveloped RNA virus, unrelated to the enveloped Flaviviridae, Togaviridae or Paramyxoviridae, and its genome is not segmented like the Reoviridae.
- MCQ
Poliovirus is transmitted predominantly by the:
- A. Respiratory droplet route
- B. Bite of a mosquito vector
- C. Sexual and bloodborne routes
- D. Contaminated needle route
- E. Faecal-oral route
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Poliovirus spreads faecal-orally, and humans are its only reservoir; the virus is shed in stool for weeks, which both sustains transmission and underpins environmental (sewage) surveillance.
There is no arthropod vector or bloodborne cycle; limited pharyngeal replication allows some oral-oral spread, but the faecal-oral route dominates.
- MCQ
Poliovirus shuts off host-cell protein synthesis mainly by:
- A. Degrading all host-cell ribosomes
- B. Blocking transcription in the nucleus
- C. Methylating host messenger RNA
- D. Cleaving the translation factor eIF4G
- E. Triggering rapid host apoptosis
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The viral 2A protease cleaves eIF4G, disabling cap-dependent translation of host messenger RNA within about two hours, while the virus’s own cap-independent internal ribosome entry site keeps working, diverting ribosomes to viral synthesis.
The virus does not degrade all ribosomes, block nuclear transcription, methylate host RNA or depend on apoptosis for shut-off.
- MCQ
Post-polio syndrome is best explained by:
- A. Reactivation of latent poliovirus
- B. Reinfection with a new serotype
- C. Loss of overworked surviving motor units
- D. An autoimmune attack on myelin
- E. Progression to motor neurone disease
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Decades after the acute illness, the enlarged motor units that took over from the neurons lost to polio degenerate under the long-term strain, giving new progressive weakness, pain and wasting in previously affected muscles.
Poliovirus does not establish latency and does not reactivate, and the syndrome is neither a fresh infection nor a demyelinating or motor-neurone disease.
- MCQ
The 2016 global "switch" in oral polio vaccine involved:
- A. Replacing inactivated vaccine with oral vaccine
- B. Withdrawing type 2 (trivalent to bivalent)
- C. Adding a type 4 poliovirus component
- D. Stopping all polio vaccination
- E. Switching from injection to oral delivery
Show answer
Correct answer: B
In April 2016 the world synchronously replaced trivalent oral vaccine with bivalent (types 1 and 3), withdrawing the live type 2 component after wild type 2 was eradicated, and introduced inactivated vaccine to maintain type 2 immunity.
Only three poliovirus serotypes exist, and vaccination continued; the change was to the oral vaccine’s composition, not its route.
- MCQ
The 60-day follow-up examination of an AFP case is performed mainly to:
- A. Collect the first stool specimen
- B. Administer catch-up vaccination
- C. Document residual paralysis
- D. Confirm the reverse cold chain
- E. Notify the case to the region
Show answer
Correct answer: C
At 60 days the case is re-examined to document whether flaccid weakness persists, which helps classify the case, and it matters most where the stool specimens were inadequate and the virological result cannot be relied on.
Specimens are collected far earlier (within 14 days), and notification and classification are separate steps in the investigation.
- MCQ
The body that reviews and certifies an entire WHO region as free of wild poliovirus is the:
- A. Regional Certification Commission
- B. National Certification Committee
- C. Global Certification Commission
- D. National Polio Expert Committee
- E. National Authority for Containment
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Certification runs upward: each National Certification Committee submits its evidence to the Regional Certification Commission, which certifies the region. In Africa this is the African Regional Certification Commission.
The Global Certification Commission certifies the world (and declared wild types 2 and 3 eradicated). The National Polio Expert Committee classifies AFP cases, and the National Authority for Containment oversees laboratory containment.
- MCQ
The cellular receptor that poliovirus uses to enter cells is:
- A. CD155, the poliovirus receptor
- B. CD4 with a chemokine coreceptor
- C. Sialic acid on red blood cells
- D. The acetylcholine receptor
- E. Complement receptor CD21
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Poliovirus binds CD155 (the poliovirus receptor), an immunoglobulin-superfamily adhesion molecule, which inserts into the capsid canyon and triggers uncoating and delivery of the RNA into the cytoplasm.
CD4 with a coreceptor is used by HIV, the acetylcholine receptor by rabies virus, and complement receptor CD21 by Epstein-Barr virus.
- MCQ
The Global Polio Eradication Initiative was launched in 1988 following a resolution of the:
- A. United Nations General Assembly
- B. World Health Assembly
- C. Rotary International convention
- D. UNICEF executive board
- E. Global Certification Commission
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The 1988 World Health Assembly resolution to eradicate poliomyelitis launched the Global Polio Eradication Initiative. Global incidence has since fallen by about 99.9%.
The initiative is led by national governments; Rotary, UNICEF and the certification bodies are partners or mechanisms within it, not the source of the founding resolution.
- MCQ
The L20B cell line is used in the polio laboratory because it:
- A. Grows all enteroviruses equally well
- B. Is selective for poliovirus
- C. Detects poliovirus antibody in serum
- D. Sequences the VP1 gene directly
- E. Removes the need for cell culture
Show answer
Correct answer: B
L20B is a mouse cell line engineered to express the human poliovirus receptor (CD155), so it favours poliovirus and suppresses other enteroviruses, giving a clean isolate for typing and sequencing.
The broadly sensitive RD line is used alongside it to catch non-polio enteroviruses and confirm the specimen carried viable virus; neither line performs serology or sequencing.
- MCQ
The paralysis of poliomyelitis is characteristically:
- A. Asymmetric and flaccid, with preserved sensation
- B. Symmetric and spastic, with a sensory level
- C. Ascending and symmetric, with numbness
- D. Confined to the facial muscles alone
- E. Purely sensory, without any weakness
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Poliomyelitis causes asymmetric, flaccid, lower-motor-neuron weakness, proximal more than distal and legs more than arms, with reflexes lost and sensation preserved.
Spasticity and a sensory level suggest a cord compression or transverse myelitis; symmetric ascending weakness with numbness suggests Guillain-Barre syndrome; polio is never purely sensory.
- MCQ
The paralysis of poliomyelitis results from destruction of the:
- A. Peripheral sensory ganglia
- B. Cerebral motor cortex alone
- C. Anterior-horn motor neurons of the cord
- D. The neuromuscular junction receptors
- E. Myelin of the peripheral nerves
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Poliovirus destroys the large lower motor neurons of the spinal cord anterior horn, producing a lower-motor-neuron pattern of flaccid, asymmetric weakness with lost reflexes and wasting but preserved sensation.
The sensory pathways and peripheral myelin are spared (unlike Guillain-Barre syndrome), and the lesion is in the neuron cell bodies, not the neuromuscular junction.
- MCQ
The poliovirus genome is:
- A. Double-stranded DNA, copied in the nucleus
- B. Negative-sense RNA, needing a virion polymerase
- C. Positive-sense RNA that acts directly as mRNA
- D. Segmented RNA with eight segments
- E. Circular DNA using reverse transcriptase
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The genome is a single positive-sense RNA of about 7.4 kb that is directly translated, with a VPg peptide at its 5’ end and an internal ribosome entry site allowing cap-independent translation of one polyprotein.
It carries no DNA stage, needs no packaged polymerase (unlike negative-sense viruses), and is neither segmented nor reverse-transcribed.
- MCQ
The principal attenuating mutation shared by all three Sabin vaccine strains, and a key site of reversion to neurovirulence, lies in:
- A. The 3D RNA-dependent RNA polymerase gene
- B. The VP4 capsid protein
- C. Domain V of the 5' untranslated region
- D. The poly(A) tail
- E. The 2A protease cleavage site
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Each Sabin strain carries a principal attenuating mutation in domain V of the 5’ untranslated region (nucleotide 480 in type 1, 481 in type 2, 472 in type 3), a structured part of the internal ribosome entry site. These positions revert rapidly in the gut, restoring the RNA structure and neurovirulence, with capsid mutations assisting.
The polymerase, VP4, the poly(A) tail and the protease sites are not the shared primary attenuating determinant.
- MCQ
The reverse cold chain for AFP stool specimens requires that samples be kept at:
- A. 4 to 8 degrees Celsius, without freezing
- B. Minus 20 degrees Celsius, frozen solid
- C. Room temperature until dispatch
- D. 37 degrees Celsius to preserve virus
- E. Minus 70 degrees Celsius throughout
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Specimens are kept at 4 to 8 degrees Celsius and must not be frozen, reaching the laboratory within 3 days of collection. It is the “reverse” cold chain because samples travel cold from patient to laboratory, the opposite direction to vaccine.
Freezing and repeated freeze-thaw damage the virus, and warm transport lets it degrade; both reduce isolation and would falsely lower the detected poliovirus burden.
- MCQ
The WHO African Region was certified free of wild poliovirus in:
- A. 2015
- B. 2018
- C. 2020
- D. 2022
- E. 2024
Show answer
Correct answer: C
The African Region was certified free of wild poliovirus in 2020, after Nigeria, the last endemic country on the continent, completed three years with no wild virus.
The 2015 and 2019 dates belong to the global declarations of eradication of wild types 2 and 3 respectively, not the African regional certification.
- MCQ
Under the polio public health emergency, a traveller residing more than four weeks in a country with poliovirus circulation may be required to show:
- A. A polio dose 4 weeks to 12 months before departure
- B. A single polio dose received at any time in infancy
- C. Three documented doses of inactivated polio vaccine before travel
- D. Documentary proof of natural polio immunity
- E. A recent negative stool sample for poliovirus
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Long-stay travellers leaving an affected country may be required to show a polio dose received between 4 weeks and 12 months before departure, documented on the certificate. The measure aims to stop travellers exporting the virus across borders.
Childhood doses alone, natural immunity or stool testing do not satisfy the requirement.
- MCQ
Under the WHO Global Action Plan (GAPIII/GAPIV), the facilities permitted to retain poliovirus after eradication are:
- A. Any accredited clinical laboratory
- B. Vaccine pharmacies holding oral vaccine
- C. All community health centres
- D. Environmental sampling stations
- E. Certified poliovirus-essential facilities
Show answer
Correct answer: E
After eradication the virus persists in laboratory and manufacturing stocks, so the number of facilities holding it is minimised and only certified poliovirus-essential facilities may retain it, each overseen by a National Authority for Containment.
General clinical laboratories, pharmacies and health centres must destroy or transfer any poliovirus materials rather than retain them, and type 2 oral-vaccine stocks were destroyed after the switch.
- MCQ
Which organisation is NOT one of the six core partners of the Global Polio Eradication Initiative?
- A. World Health Organization
- B. Rotary International
- C. UNICEF
- D. Medecins Sans Frontieres
- E. The Gates Foundation
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The six core partners are the WHO, Rotary International, the US CDC, UNICEF, the Gates Foundation and Gavi, led by national governments. Medecins Sans Frontieres is not among them.
Rotary drives advocacy and fundraising, UNICEF procures and delivers vaccine, and the Gates Foundation is a major funder.
- MCQ
Why does only a small minority of poliovirus infections lead to paralysis?
- A. Most infecting strains lack a receptor
- B. Type I interferon usually confines the virus
- C. Maternal antibody blocks all CNS entry
- D. The virus rarely replicates in the gut
- E. Neurons cannot support viral replication
Show answer
Correct answer: B
In most hosts the type I interferon response confines poliovirus to the gut and blood, and paralysis follows only when replication in extraneural tissue is not held in check, letting the virus reach the cord. This helps explain why roughly only 1 in 200 infections paralyses.
Poliovirus replicates well in the gut and, in susceptible hosts, in neurons; the receptor is present, and maternal antibody wanes.