Questions
Viral Infection in Transplant Recipients — Questions
Study questions for Viral Infection in Transplant Recipients.
Mock Exam mode
Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.
25 questions: 14 MCQ, 11 written.
High priorityClinical scenarioA kidney transplant recipient, nine months post-transplant and still on full immunosuppression after earlier rejection episodes, has a rising serum creatinine and a rising BK virus load. Outline the specimens used, the screening schedule, and the management. [8]
Model answer
Specimens. The plasma BK virus DNA load is the decision marker: virus in the blood reflects significant renal replication and is what triggers and monitors treatment. Urinary shedding is near-universal in reactivation, so it is sensitive but not specific, and a high urine load alone does not establish nephropathy. Proven nephropathy requires a renal biopsy with viral cytopathic change and positive simian virus 40 (SV40) large T antigen immunohistochemistry, taking at least two cores including medulla because the disease is focal.
Screening schedule. All kidney transplant recipients are screened for plasma BK virus DNA at intervals: conventionally monthly until about nine months after transplant, then every three months until two years. A sustained plasma load above 10,000 copies per millilitre is taken as presumptive nephropathy and prompts intervention before the graft is damaged.
Management. The mainstay is stepwise reduction of immunosuppression to restore BK-virus-specific T-cell control: reduce the antimetabolite to no more than half its dose and lower the calcineurin-inhibitor target, which clears the virus in ~80% of patients. There is no antiviral of proven benefit, and adjuncts are reserved for failure of reduction. The important caveat is concurrent acute rejection: if rejection coexists, it is treated first and immunosuppression reduced only afterwards, because the two conditions demand opposite changes.
High priorityExam-styleDescribe the pathogenesis of BK-virus-associated nephropathy, and the specimens preferred for screening versus diagnosis. [6]
Model answer
Pathogenesis
BK virus persists for life in the renal tubular epithelium and urothelium and is held in check by cellular immunity. After kidney transplantation the immunosuppression needed to protect the graft permits uncontrolled lytic replication, and the replicating virus is frequently donor-derived, carried in with the kidney. Infected tubular cells enlarge with intranuclear inclusions, round up and slough into the urine as decoy cells, and lyse, releasing virus and provoking an interstitial inflammatory infiltrate. The process is graded through three histological stages, from early cytopathic change with little inflammation, through interstitial inflammation and tubulitis, to tubular atrophy and fibrosis, the last representing irreversible scarring and graft loss.
Specimens for screening versus diagnosis
Screening uses the plasma BK virus DNA load, which reflects renal replication and is the marker that triggers pre-emptive treatment; urine load and decoy cells are more sensitive but less specific, useful as a first filter rather than a decision point. Diagnosis of proven nephropathy is histological: a renal biopsy showing viral cytopathic change with an inflammatory infiltrate, confirmed by simian virus 40 (SV40) large T antigen immunohistochemistry. Because the infection is focal and favours the medulla, at least two cores including medulla are taken, and a negative stain does not exclude early disease.
High priorityExam-styleDiscuss the role of the virology laboratory in the diagnosis of a case of probable progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer links each laboratory test to the clinical and radiological picture, since the diagnosis is made on the combination rather than on any single result.
Cerebrospinal fluid JC virus PCR
The central test is detection of JC virus DNA in cerebrospinal fluid by polymerase chain reaction (PCR). In a patient with compatible neurology and characteristic imaging, a positive result confirms the diagnosis (laboratory-confirmed progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy) and removes the need for brain biopsy. Detection in the cerebrospinal fluid is meaningful because the virus is not normally present there, unlike urine and blood, where asymptomatic shedding is common. Quantification is useful for monitoring. The key limitation is sensitivity: the assay misses roughly a quarter of histologically proven cases, particularly at low viral load or after antiretroviral therapy has reduced it, so a negative result does not exclude the diagnosis. Routine cerebrospinal fluid is usually otherwise normal, which helps separate it from the meningoencephalitides that produce a pleocytosis.
When the PCR is non-informative
Where the result is negative but suspicion persists, the options are to repeat the test, to measure an intrathecal anti-JC virus antibody response, or to proceed to stereotactic brain biopsy. Biopsy remains the definitive test, showing the histological triad of demyelination, enlarged oligodendrocyte nuclei and bizarre astrocytes, with confirmation by viral protein on immunohistochemistry or viral genome by in situ hybridisation.
Putting it together
The laboratory does not diagnose the disease in isolation: it supplies the virological confirmation that, set against the clinical syndrome and the magnetic resonance imaging appearance, allows the case to be graded as possible, probable or laboratory-confirmed. The serum JC virus antibody index has no role in an established case; it is a risk-stratification tool in the natalizumab setting.
- MCQ
A patient is ten years after a kidney transplant on long-term immunosuppression. Which HPV-related complication are they most at risk of, and how is that risk addressed?
- A. Disseminated cutaneous HPV warts with pneumonia, treated with cidofovir
- B. Hepatocellular carcinoma from viral integration, screened by ultrasound
- C. Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma, managed by an mTOR switch
- D. Early cervical cancer, prevented by pre-transplant hysterectomy
- E. No increased risk, since the drugs are directly antiviral
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Human papillomavirus (HPV) disease accrues with the duration and intensity of immunosuppression, and the important long-term complication is cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma, with ultraviolet light as a cofactor and the usual skin-cancer ratio reversed so that squamous outnumbers basal cell carcinoma. Cutaneous warts rise from ~15% at transplant to over 80% at 20 years. Risk is addressed by sun protection, regular skin and cervical surveillance, HPV vaccination of candidates before transplant, and reducing immunosuppression or switching to a mechanistic-target-of-rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitor where disease develops.
HPV causes no blood-borne viraemia or pneumonia, does not cause hepatocellular carcinoma (that is hepatitis B or C), does not produce cervical cancer within a year (cytology detects it, hysterectomy does not prevent it), and the risk is increased, not absent.
- MCQ
A solid-organ transplant is planned. Which donor (D) and recipient (R) cytomegalovirus serostatus combination carries the highest risk of CMV disease?
- A. Seropositive donor into seronegative recipient
- B. Seronegative donor into seropositive recipient
- C. Seronegative donor into seronegative recipient
- D. Seropositive donor into seropositive recipient
- E. Serostatus makes no difference to risk
Show answer
Correct answer: A
The seronegative recipient of a seropositive organ (D positive, R negative) has no cytomegalovirus (CMV)-specific memory immunity, so latent CMV delivered in the graft causes a primary infection in a naive, pharmacologically immunosuppressed host. Without prophylaxis this group has the highest rates of infection (~80 to 100%) and of CMV disease (~50 to 70%), which is why prophylaxis is targeted to it.
D negative, R positive and D positive, R positive are intermediate (reactivation contained by some pre-existing immunity); D negative, R negative is lowest (no CMV present); and serostatus is precisely what stratifies risk and sets the prevention strategy.
- MCQ
Decoy cells on the urine cytology of a transplant recipient are:
- A. Malignant urothelial cells indicating bladder carcinoma
- B. Infected epithelial cells shed in BK reactivation
- C. Cytomegalovirus-infected owl-eye cells
- D. Eosinophils indicating allergic interstitial nephritis
- E. Red-cell casts indicating glomerulonephritis
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Decoy cells are infected tubular and urothelial cells bearing ground-glass intranuclear inclusions, shed into the urine during BK-virus reactivation; they are a sensitive but non-specific marker of replication.
They are not malignant cells, are distinct from the owl-eye cells of cytomegalovirus, and have nothing to do with eosinophils or red-cell casts.
- MCQ
Four weeks after an allogeneic stem-cell transplant, and after engraftment, a patient develops painful haematuria, and BK virus is detected at high level in the urine. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Early chemical cystitis from cyclophosphamide
- B. Late BK polyomavirus haemorrhagic cystitis
- C. BK polyomavirus-associated nephropathy
- D. Cytomegalovirus haemorrhagic cystitis
- E. Asymptomatic viruria of no clinical significance
Show answer
Correct answer: B
The timing after engraftment with high urinary BK virus is late BK polyomavirus haemorrhagic cystitis, a bladder disease managed largely with supportive care (hydration, bladder irrigation, transfusion) as immunity recovers.
Chemical cystitis from urotoxic conditioning agents such as cyclophosphamide occurs early, in the first days, not weeks after engraftment. This is a bladder disease, not the renal-allograft nephropathy, and it is BK rather than cytomegalovirus. The high urinary load does not by itself equate to disease: ~50 to 80% of recipients have high viruria but under 20% develop cystitis, and here the patient is symptomatic.
- MCQ
In preventing cytomegalovirus disease after transplantation, which statement correctly describes a pre-emptive strategy?
- A. Antiviral given to all at-risk patients for a fixed period
- B. Antiviral started only when monitoring detects replication
- C. Antiviral started only after symptomatic disease appears
- D. Antiviral given from day one to all seropositive pairs
- E. Weekly monitoring with no antiviral ever given
Show answer
Correct answer: B
A pre-emptive strategy withholds antiviral and monitors the viral load at regular intervals (typically weekly), treating only when replication crosses a threshold. It spares drug exposure, cost and resistance, but depends on reliable, frequent, standardised monitoring and can be outrun by rapidly rising viraemia.
Option A is the definition of universal prophylaxis (antiviral to all at-risk for a fixed period, which risks late-onset disease when it stops); C wrongly waits for symptomatic disease; D describes prophylaxis; and E omits the treatment that pre-emptive monitoring is meant to trigger.
- MCQ
Proven BK-virus-associated nephropathy on renal biopsy is confirmed by:
- A. Congo red staining for amyloid
- B. C4d staining of peritubular capillaries
- C. Immunohistochemistry for SV40 large T antigen
- D. Silver staining for fungal hyphae
- E. Immunostaining for cytomegalovirus early antigen
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Proven nephropathy requires viral cytopathic change with positive immunohistochemistry for the simian virus 40 (SV40) large T antigen, using an antibody that cross-reacts with the BK-virus large T antigen to stain infected tubular nuclei.
C4d marks antibody-mediated rejection, not BK disease, and the Congo red, silver and cytomegalovirus stains identify unrelated processes.
- MCQ
Reducing immunosuppression is described as the first therapeutic lever for several viral infections after transplantation. For which group is it the primary intervention rather than an adjunct to a specific antiviral?
- A. Cytomegalovirus disease, where it replaces antiviral drugs
- B. Herpes simplex mucositis, needing immunosuppression stopped first
- C. Influenza pneumonia, where antivirals add nothing
- D. BK nephropathy, PTLD, adenovirus and chronic hepatitis E
- E. Every viral infection after transplant equally
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Where no reliably effective antiviral exists, restoring virus-specific T-cell immunity is the mainstay, so reducing immunosuppression is primary for BK polyomavirus nephropathy, post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD), adenovirus disease and chronic hepatitis E (with rituximab or cidofovir as adjuncts).
Where a good drug exists, the drug leads: cytomegalovirus is treated with ganciclovir or valganciclovir; herpes simplex responds to aciclovir regardless of immune state; influenza benefits from early neuraminidase inhibitors. Reducing immunosuppression always helps but never removes the need for effective antivirals, and it is balanced against the risk of rejection.
- MCQ
Regarding drug therapy for BK-virus-associated nephropathy, which statement is correct?
- A. Ganciclovir is the treatment of choice
- B. Cidofovir eradicates the virus without renal toxicity
- C. Levofloxacin clears viraemia in controlled trials
- D. Aciclovir prophylaxis prevents nephropathy
- E. No specific antiviral is of proven benefit
Show answer
Correct answer: E
No antiviral has proven benefit against BK virus, so management rests on reducing immunosuppression to restore virus-specific T-cell control.
A randomised trial of levofloxacin showed no effect on viral load, cidofovir gives inconsistent results and carries nephrotoxicity and uveitis, and ganciclovir and aciclovir have no useful activity against BK virus.
- MCQ
The primary management of BK-virus-associated nephropathy in a kidney transplant recipient is to:
- A. Reduce immunosuppression under viral-load guidance
- B. Start high-dose intravenous aciclovir
- C. Add oral levofloxacin for three months
- D. Increase immunosuppression to suppress the virus
- E. Begin intravenous ganciclovir
Show answer
Correct answer: A
There is no antiviral of proven benefit, so the mainstay is stepwise reduction of immunosuppression, guided by the plasma viral load, to restore BK-virus-specific T-cell control; this clears the virus in ~80% of patients.
Aciclovir and ganciclovir have no useful activity against BK virus, a randomised trial of levofloxacin showed no effect, and increasing immunosuppression would worsen replication.
- MCQ
Three weeks after an allogeneic stem-cell transplant, a patient develops confusion, short-term memory loss, seizures and hyponatraemia, with bilateral medial temporal lobe change on MRI. Which infection is most likely, and how is it confirmed?
- A. Human herpesvirus 6 encephalitis, confirmed on cerebrospinal fluid PCR
- B. Herpes simplex encephalitis, confirmed on cerebrospinal fluid PCR
- C. Cytomegalovirus encephalitis, confirmed on cerebrospinal fluid PCR
- D. JC virus leukoencephalopathy, confirmed on cerebrospinal fluid PCR
- E. Epstein-Barr virus CNS lymphoma, confirmed on cerebrospinal fluid PCR
Show answer
Correct answer: A
This is post-transplant acute limbic encephalitis from human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6B) reactivation, which occurs early after stem-cell transplant (around weeks two to four). Anterograde amnesia, seizures, the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (hyponatraemia) and bilateral medial temporal lobe change on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are the signature. Diagnosis is by HHV-6 DNA polymerase chain reaction (PCR) on cerebrospinal fluid and plasma, treated with ganciclovir or foscarnet (aciclovir is inactive). The pitfall is chromosomally integrated HHV-6, which gives a persistently high load without active disease; a load that falls with treatment supports a causative role.
Herpes simplex encephalitis is possible but the imaging and post-transplant context favour HHV-6; cytomegalovirus central nervous system disease is uncommon and not this limbic picture; JC virus causes white-matter disease, not medial temporal change; and Epstein-Barr virus lymphoma presents as a mass lesion.
- MCQ
Which best describes the "net state of immunosuppression" that determines a transplant recipient's risk of viral infection?
- A. The single most important drug, judged by trough level
- B. Pre-transplant antibody titres to CMV and Epstein-Barr virus
- C. The degree of donor-recipient HLA mismatch alone
- D. The total conditioning radiation dose, taken alone
- E. A composite of drugs, host factors and viral burden
Show answer
Correct answer: E
The net state of immunosuppression is an integrative estimate that sums several contributions, not any single variable: the immunosuppressive drugs (dose, duration, sequence and type, with anti-T-cell antibodies raising risk most and mechanistic-target-of-rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors lowering cytomegalovirus (CMV) risk); host factors (neutropenia, lymphopenia, low immunoglobulin, breached barriers, indwelling lines, uraemia, diabetes); and the burden of immunomodulating viruses already present (CMV, Epstein-Barr virus, human herpesvirus 6, hepatitis B and C).
Because risk is the sum of these, two patients on the same regimen can differ greatly in vulnerability. Each distractor reduces a multifactorial state to one variable: a drug level, a serostatus, a human leucocyte antigen (HLA) match, or a radiation dose.
- MCQ
Which specimen and result triggers pre-emptive treatment of BK virus in a kidney transplant recipient?
- A. A single urine sample showing decoy cells
- B. Urine BK virus DNA above 10,000 copies per millilitre
- C. BK virus IgG seroconversion in the recipient
- D. Plasma BK virus DNA above 10,000 copies per millilitre
- E. An isolated doubling of the serum creatinine
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The plasma BK virus DNA load is the decision marker, because virus in the blood reflects significant renal replication; a sustained plasma load above 10,000 copies per millilitre is taken as presumptive nephropathy and prompts pre-emptive reduction of immunosuppression.
Urinary shedding and decoy cells are sensitive but not specific, serology does not guide treatment, and a creatinine rise alone is non-specific.
- MCQ
Which statement about preventing herpes simplex and varicella-zoster virus disease in stem-cell transplant recipients is correct?
- A. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin is given to all recipients regardless of exposure
- B. No prophylaxis is needed, as both reactivations are self-limiting
- C. Live varicella vaccine is given routinely after transplant
- D. Early aciclovir prophylaxis prevents most HSV reactivation
- E. Aciclovir is withheld until the first zoster episode
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Early aciclovir or valaciclovir prophylaxis cuts herpes simplex virus (HSV) reactivation from ~70% to under 5% in the first month, and the ganciclovir or valganciclovir given for cytomegalovirus also covers HSV.
For varicella-zoster virus (VZV), a seronegative recipient exposed to chickenpox or shingles is given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (not every recipient regardless of exposure), so option A is wrong. These reactivations are not self-limiting in the immunosuppressed; live varicella and zoster vaccines are contraindicated after transplant; and withholding prophylaxis until disease is wrong, since long-term prophylaxis keeps aciclovir resistance low.
- MCQ
Why is quantitative nucleic-acid (viral-load) testing, rather than serology, the mainstay for diagnosing and monitoring viral infection in transplant recipients?
- A. Antibody titres stay fully reliable in transplant recipients
- B. PCR identifies the bacteria and fungi that serology misses
- C. Blunted antibody responses make serology unreliable, so PCR is used
- D. Immunosuppressed patients have no B cells and make no immunoglobulin
- E. A rising antibody titre is the earliest marker of disease
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Immunosuppression blunts the antibody response, so serology is unreliable: a patient can have severe disease without a diagnostic antibody rise. Quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) instead measures the virus directly, diagnosing active infection independent of immune status, providing a threshold to trigger pre-emptive therapy (for cytomegalovirus, Epstein-Barr virus, BK and adenovirus), and following the response, with a rising load on treatment suggesting resistance or non-adherence. Reporting in WHO international units per millilitre (IU/mL) standardises results across assays.
Antibody responses are not reliable here; PCR is not a bacterial or fungal culture; immunoglobulin is reduced, not wholly absent; and the antibody rise is late, not the earliest marker.
Exam-styleDescribe BK-virus haemorrhagic cystitis after allogeneic haematopoietic stem cell transplantation, including its distinction from early cystitis and its management. [6]
Model answer
Features. BK-virus haemorrhagic cystitis is high-level replication of BK virus in the urothelium, causing denudation and bleeding of the bladder lining. It is of late onset, some two to twelve weeks after engraftment, and is defined by the combination of cystitis symptoms (dysuria, frequency, suprapubic pain), visible haematuria with clots, and a high urine BK virus load. Two transplant-specific factors amplify it: prior urotoxic conditioning, in which cyclophosphamide and its metabolite acrolein damage the bladder epithelium, and the inflammatory surge of immune reconstitution at engraftment.
Distinction from early cystitis. Early haemorrhagic cystitis, occurring in the first days after transplant, is due to conditioning toxicity alone and is brief; it is not caused by BK virus. The later onset, the high urine BK load and the timing around engraftment separate BK-virus cystitis from this earlier urotoxic form.
Management. Management is largely supportive: hydration, bladder irrigation, evacuation of clots, and transfusion of platelets or red cells as needed, while returning cellular immunity brings the infection under control. There is no antiviral of proven benefit. Reducing immunosuppression, the mainstay in renal nephropathy, is constrained here by the risk of graft-versus-host disease.
Exam-styleDescribe the classic timeline of infection after solid-organ transplantation, naming the viral infections that dominate each period and explaining how antiviral prophylaxis reshapes it. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer divides the post-transplant course into three risk periods, maps the dominant infections to each, and explains why prophylaxis shifts rather than abolishes the pattern.
The first month: nosocomial and donor-derived
Early infection is dominated by surgical and healthcare-associated problems (wound, line and catheter infection, anastomotic leaks, aspiration) rather than by opportunistic viral reactivation, because the cumulative effect of immunosuppression has not yet peaked. The main viral event is herpes simplex virus (HSV) reactivation. Rare but important donor-derived transmissions present in this window as unexplained encephalitis or hepatitis, including West Nile virus, lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus, rabies and (now very rarely, through screening) HIV.
One to six months: the opportunistic window
This is the period of greatest vulnerability, when the net state of immunosuppression is highest. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the central pathogen. Alongside it come Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and the risk of post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder, human herpesvirus 6 and 7, BK polyomavirus (especially in kidney recipients), reactivating hepatitis B and C, and the community respiratory viruses. Non-viral opportunists such as Pneumocystis also cluster here.
After six months: community-acquired, with a tail
Most patients are now on stable, lower-dose immunosuppression and behave much like the general community, so respiratory viruses predominate. Two groups diverge: those who complete a course of CMV prophylaxis can develop late-onset CMV once it stops (especially the seronegative recipient of a seropositive graft), and a minority with chronic graft dysfunction or repeated rejection needing intensified immunosuppression stay at sustained opportunistic risk. Late EBV-driven disease and human papillomavirus-related malignancy also emerge in this period.
How prophylaxis reshapes the timeline
Antiviral prophylaxis does not abolish infection; it delays it. CMV prophylaxis moves disease out of the one-to-six-month window into a late-onset form appearing after the drug is stopped. The classic timeline is therefore a guide to the differential diagnosis at a given point, not a fixed schedule, and it must be read against what prophylaxis the patient has received.
Exam-styleDiscuss community respiratory virus infection in stem-cell and lung transplant recipients: the risk of progression, diagnosis, and management. [8]
Model answer
A complete answer covers the spectrum of viruses and what drives progression, the diagnostic approach, and virus-specific and supportive management.
The viruses and the risk of progression
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), influenza, parainfluenza virus, human metapneumovirus, rhinovirus and SARS-CoV-2 are acquired from the community or nosocomially, not by reactivation. They usually begin as an upper-respiratory illness but can progress to the lower tract and pneumonia, which carries high mortality in stem-cell recipients. Progression is driven by lymphopenia and pre-engraftment timing, and for influenza by older age. In lung-transplant recipients these viruses are also linked to acute rejection and bronchiolitis obliterans.
Diagnosis
A multiplex respiratory PCR on a nasopharyngeal sample, and on bronchoalveolar lavage where lower-tract disease is suspected, identifies the virus rapidly and guides isolation and specific therapy.
Management
- RSV: aerosolised ribavirin, sometimes with immunoglobulin, started at the upper-tract stage before respiratory failure gives the best chance of preventing progression in high-risk patients.
- Influenza: a neuraminidase inhibitor (oseltamivir) started early reduces progression; prolonged shedding and resistance occur in the immunosuppressed.
- Parainfluenza, metapneumovirus and rhinovirus have no proven antiviral, so care is supportive.
- For all of them, infection control is essential, since these viruses cause nosocomial outbreaks: isolation, hand hygiene and staff and visitor screening, with elective transplant deferred if the candidate has a respiratory infection at the time of conditioning.
Exam-styleDiscuss disseminated adenovirus infection after haematopoietic stem-cell transplantation: who is at risk, how it is monitored, and how it is managed. [8]
Model answer
A complete answer identifies the high-risk groups, explains viral-load surveillance, and gives the management ladder.
Who is at risk
Adenovirus is most dangerous after allogeneic stem-cell transplantation, particularly in children and above all with T-cell depletion (in vivo antithymocyte globulin or ex vivo graft manipulation), which removes the cellular immunity needed to control it. Graft-versus-host disease and cord-blood or mismatched donors add risk. It usually appears within the first three months.
Clinical disease
Infection ranges from asymptomatic shedding to disseminated, frequently fatal disease: gastroenteritis and hepatitis, pneumonia, haemorrhagic cystitis and nephritis, and multi-organ failure. Detectable and rising adenovirus in the blood is the key predictor of dissemination.
Monitoring
High-risk patients are monitored with quantitative real-time PCR on blood and, because shedding there precedes viraemia, on stool and urine. Pre-emptive treatment is triggered by viraemia, not by stool positivity alone, since most stool-positive patients never develop disease.
Management
Reduce immunosuppression to let adenovirus-specific T cells recover. Cidofovir, or its oral lipid-ester brincidofovir (less nephrotoxic), is given pre-emptively on confirmed viraemia, with close attention to renal toxicity and hydration. Adoptive transfer of donor-derived adenovirus-specific T cells is an effective option for refractory disease where it is available.
Exam-styleHow is BK-virus-associated nephropathy distinguished from acute rejection in a kidney transplant recipient, and why does the distinction matter? [6]
Model answer
Why it matters. The two conditions look alike but demand opposite treatment. Both present as graft dysfunction with a rising creatinine and both show an interstitial inflammatory infiltrate with tubulitis on biopsy, yet nephropathy is treated by reducing immunosuppression while rejection is treated by augmenting it. Choosing wrongly harms the graft: cutting immunosuppression in rejection accelerates it, and increasing it in nephropathy fuels viral replication.
How they are distinguished. A high and rising plasma BK virus load points to nephropathy, which is then confirmed on biopsy by viral cytopathic change with positive simian virus 40 (SV40) large T antigen immunohistochemistry. Acute rejection is favoured by features such as endarteritis and, in antibody-mediated rejection, C4d deposition along peritubular capillaries, in the absence of viral staining. The two can coexist, and biopsy with the SV40 stain is what separates them. When both are present, rejection is treated first and immunosuppression reduced only afterwards.
Exam-styleHow should vaccination be used to reduce viral infection risk around solid-organ or stem-cell transplantation? [8]
Model answer
A complete answer covers timing relative to immunosuppression, the live-vaccine rule, protection of close contacts, and re-vaccination after stem-cell transplant.
Vaccinate before transplant
Vaccine responses are far better before immunosuppression begins, so the candidate’s schedule should be completed during the transplant assessment: inactivated influenza (annually), pneumococcal vaccines, and hepatitis B (checking that a protective anti-HBs response is achieved), along with any catch-up doses needed.
The live-vaccine rule
Live attenuated vaccines (measles-mumps-rubella, varicella, and live zoster) can cause disease in an immunosuppressed host and are contraindicated after transplant. A seronegative candidate should therefore receive them before transplant, allowing an adequate interval (commonly at least four weeks) before immunosuppression starts. Inactivated vaccines carry no such risk and may be given or boosted at any time, although the response is weaker once immunosuppressed.
Protect the household
Because the recipient may respond poorly and cannot receive live vaccines, protect them indirectly by cocooning: vaccinate household and close contacts, especially with annual inactivated influenza, and avoid live oral poliovirus vaccine in contacts. Contacts given other live vaccines rarely transmit, though a varicella-vaccine rash warrants care.
Re-vaccinate after stem-cell transplant
Haematopoietic stem-cell transplantation erases established immune memory, so recipients are effectively unimmunised and need a full re-vaccination programme. Inactivated vaccines are usually restarted around 6 to 12 months after transplant, with live vaccines deferred until immune reconstitution is secure (commonly around two years, off immunosuppression and free of graft-versus-host disease).
Passive immunisation
Where active vaccination is not possible, specific immunoglobulin gives short-term passive cover after an exposure, for example varicella- zoster immunoglobulin for a seronegative recipient exposed to chickenpox or shingles.
Exam-styleOutline the three phases of infection risk after haematopoietic stem-cell transplantation and the viral infections characteristic of each, and state how graft-versus-host disease alters the pattern. [8]
Model answer
A complete answer keys the three phases to engraftment, names the dominant viruses in each, and explains the effect of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).
Pre-engraftment (to around day 30)
Profound neutropenia and mucosal injury from conditioning dominate. Herpes simplex virus is the characteristic herpesvirus reactivation of this phase, and community respiratory viruses acquired around admission can seed the lungs. Bacterial and fungal infection are the larger overall threat here.
Early post-engraftment (engraftment to about day 100)
Neutrophils have recovered but cellular immunity is still absent, which is the period of greatest opportunistic viral risk. CMV reactivation peaks. Also characteristic are human herpesvirus 6 (encephalitis, fever, marrow suppression and delayed engraftment), EBV and post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder, adenovirus (especially in children), BK polyomavirus haemorrhagic cystitis, and continuing respiratory-virus risk.
Late (after day 100)
As immunity slowly reconstitutes, varicella-zoster virus reactivation becomes characteristic, alongside late CMV and ongoing respiratory-virus infection.
The effect of graft-versus-host disease
GVHD and the immunosuppression used to treat it are the main reason the late phase is prolonged. Chronic GVHD keeps cellular immunity suppressed for months or years, extending the window of risk for CMV, VZV and respiratory viruses well beyond day 100 and making these patients behave, immunologically, as though they were still early after transplant.
Exam-styleWrite short notes on human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) and Kaposi sarcoma in the transplant recipient. [6]
Model answer
The virus and its tumours. HHV-8 (Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus) causes Kaposi sarcoma, and also primary effusion lymphoma and multicentric Castleman disease. In transplant recipients Kaposi sarcoma is typically the earliest post-transplant malignancy, arising from reactivation of the recipient’s own latent virus or, less often, from a donor-derived infection transmitted in the graft.
Epidemiology. Risk tracks HHV-8 seroprevalence, which is geographically very uneven: under 5% in Northern European blood donors but up to ~80% in parts of sub-Saharan Africa. Post-transplant Kaposi sarcoma is therefore rare (under 1%) in low-prevalence regions but reaches ~4 to 5% in high-prevalence populations, where it makes up the majority of all post-transplant cancers.
Clinical and management. Kaposi sarcoma presents as violaceous cutaneous nodules, but visceral involvement (gastrointestinal, pulmonary) occurs in up to ~40% and may bleed or obstruct. The mainstay of treatment is reduction of immunosuppression and a switch to a mechanistic-target-of-rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitor such as sirolimus, which is both immunosuppressive and antitumour and can drive regression. Visceral or refractory disease needs chemotherapy, and antivirals are of unproven benefit.