Questions
CMV in the Transplant Patient — Questions
Study questions for CMV in the Transplant Patient.
Mock Exam mode
Sit this set one question at a time. Multiple-choice questions mark themselves; written questions reveal a tickable mark scheme so you can score your own answer. You get a combined score at the end.
26 questions: 17 MCQ, 9 written.
High priorityClinical scenarioA liver-transplant recipient has deranged liver enzymes. A biopsy shows large cells with owl's-eye intranuclear inclusions. a. What is the diagnosis? b. How is it confirmed? c. Outline the antiviral management, with drugs and doses. [5]
Model answer
a. CMV hepatitis: the owl’s-eye intranuclear inclusion is the cytopathic hallmark of cytomegalovirus, and after liver transplant it must be separated from rejection and drug injury.
b. Immunohistochemistry on the biopsy for CMV antigen confirms tissue-invasive disease; a plasma CMV PCR is sent as a baseline for monitoring, though the blood load can be low in tissue-invasive disease.
c. First-line antiviral is intravenous ganciclovir 5 mg/kg 12-hourly (or oral valganciclovir 900 mg 12-hourly for non-severe disease with reliable absorption), continued for a minimum of two weeks and until the viral load clears below the local threshold. Reducing immunosuppression where feasible is a useful adjunct.
High priorityClinical scenarioA patient is three months after allogeneic haematopoietic stem-cell transplantation, has graft-versus-host disease, and is on corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide. The plasma CMV viral load has stayed above 3 log10 despite two weeks of correctly dosed ganciclovir. a. Explain the rationale for continuing ganciclovir in this patient. b. What advice would you give about the concern for ganciclovir resistance? c. Name two newer anti-CMV agents. [6]
Model answer
a. The viral load falls slowly, so a persistent level at two weeks does not by itself mean failure. Ganciclovir is continued because agents are not switched within the first two weeks if the patient is otherwise responding; adherence and correct dosing are confirmed; and reducing immunosuppression is attempted where the graft-versus-host disease allows.
b. True resistance is suspected only after adequate cumulative exposure (beyond two weeks, and generally four to six weeks of therapy) with a load that plateaus or rises. It is confirmed by genotypic sequencing: UL97 first, the commonest and conferring ganciclovir resistance; UL54 giving broader cross-resistance to foscarnet and cidofovir. It is more likely with prolonged exposure and heavy immunosuppression, as here.
c. Maribavir (an oral UL97-kinase inhibitor for refractory or resistant CMV) and letermovir (a terminase inhibitor, used for prophylaxis). Foscarnet is the established polymerase-active switch for confirmed UL97 resistance.
High prioritySAQA kidney transplant recipient is CMV donor positive, recipient negative (D positive, R negative). Name two strategies to prevent CMV disease after transplant, distinguish CMV infection from CMV disease in this setting, and explain why this serostatus is high risk. [5]
Model answer
Two prevention strategies.
- Universal prophylaxis: an antiviral (usually valganciclovir) given to all at-risk recipients for a fixed period after transplant.
- Pre-emptive therapy: serial viral-load surveillance, treating only when the load crosses a threshold.
Infection versus disease. CMV infection is detection of the virus (for example viraemia on PCR), which may be asymptomatic; CMV disease is that detection together with attributable findings, either a viral syndrome (fever, malaise, cytopenias) or tissue-invasive end-organ involvement.
Why D positive, R negative is high risk. The donor kidney carries latent CMV while the seronegative recipient has no pre-existing CMV immunity, so the graft transmits virus into a host who undergoes a primary infection with no CMV-specific T cells to control it. Without prevention this group has an 80 to 100% risk of infection and a 50 to 70% risk of disease.
High prioritySAQWhy are cytomegalovirus (CMV) viral loads reported in international units per millilitre rather than copies per millilitre, and what are the practical limits of this standardisation? [5]
Model answer
A complete answer explains what the international unit fixes, why it matters, and the residual variation it does not remove.
What it fixes. Before standardisation, every laboratory reported CMV DNA in its own copies per millilitre against its own standards, so a value from one assay could not be compared with another. The World Health Organization International Standard provides a single reference preparation against which commercial assays are calibrated, letting results be expressed in international units per millilitre (IU/mL).
Why it matters. Standardised reporting lets viral-load thresholds be shared between centres and written into guidelines (triggering pre-emptive therapy, defining response, suspecting resistance), and it allows multicentre trials and the transfer of a patient between laboratories without losing the thread of monitoring.
The residual limits. Standardisation reduces but does not abolish variation. Even WHO-calibrated assays are not fully interchangeable, differing in gene target, amplicon size and extraction, so a patient should still be followed on one assay and one specimen type throughout. Specimen type matters in its own right: a whole-blood load runs roughly one log10 higher than a plasma load from the same patient. Because of this residual variation there is no single universal disease-defining cutoff, and thresholds remain assay-specific.
High priorityExam-styleDescribe the pre-emptive and prophylactic antiviral therapy approach for CMV in the post-transplant patient, and mention an advantage and a disadvantage of each approach. [6]
Model answer
A complete answer describes both prevention strategies and gives an advantage and a disadvantage of each.
Universal (prophylactic) therapy
Prophylaxis gives an antiviral (typically valganciclovir, or letermovir in seropositive allogeneic stem-cell recipients) to every at-risk patient for a fixed period after transplant, regardless of the viral load.
- Advantages: simple to deliver, needs no surveillance monitoring, reliably prevents early disease, and may additionally blunt the indirect immunomodulatory effects of CMV (rejection, other infections).
- Disadvantages: drug cost and toxicity (ganciclovir myelosuppression), selection of resistance, and over-treatment of patients who would never have developed CMV.
Pre-emptive therapy
Pre-emptive therapy withholds the drug and instead monitors the viral load at regular (usually weekly) intervals, starting treatment only when replication crosses a threshold.
- Advantages: spares drug exposure, toxicity, cost and resistance, and treats only those who actually need it.
- Disadvantages: depends on reliable, frequent, standardised viral-load testing, can be outrun by rapidly rising viraemia between tests, and does not suppress the indirect effects in patients who never cross the threshold. It is often preferred in stem-cell transplant to avoid marrow toxicity.
High priorityExam-styleWhat is late-onset CMV disease in the transplant recipient, why does it occur, and how is the risk managed? [6]
Model answer
A complete answer defines the entity, gives the mechanism and the at-risk group, and explains how monitoring addresses it.
What it is. Late-onset CMV disease is CMV disease that appears after a fixed course of universal prophylaxis has finished, typically beyond three to six months in solid-organ recipients, rather than during the classic one-to-six-month window. It is the characteristic drawback of the prophylactic strategy.
Why it occurs. Prophylaxis suppresses CMV replication throughout the period it is given, preventing early disease but also meaning the patient is never exposed to enough virus to build CMV-specific T-cell immunity. When the drug stops, an immunologically unprimed and still-immunosuppressed patient can develop primary or reactivated disease. The group at greatest risk is the seronegative recipient of a seropositive organ (D positive, R negative), in whom up to a third may develop late-onset disease.
How the risk is managed.
- Surveillance after prophylaxis stops: switching to viral-load monitoring (a pre-emptive approach) for a period after the course ends, so rising virus is caught and treated before disease.
- Risk-adapted prophylaxis duration: extending prophylaxis in the highest-risk patients, and using immune monitoring (CMV-specific T-cell assays) to judge when protective immunity has recovered and the drug can safely stop.
- Secondary prophylaxis after a first treated episode in those who remain heavily immunosuppressed.
This trade-off is one of the main arguments for a pre-emptive rather than a purely prophylactic strategy in some programmes.
- MCQ
A CMV-specific cell-mediated immunity assay is most useful for deciding which of the following?
- A. The choice of conditioning regimen
- B. When to stop CMV prophylaxis
- C. Which donor organ to use
- D. The HLA match
- E. The transplant date
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Assays of CMV-specific cell-mediated immunity measure whether the patient has rebuilt the T-cell response that controls CMV. A positive result predicts freedom from later CMV events, so it helps decide when it is safe to stop prophylaxis and how to risk-stratify monitoring.
Its limits are real: performance is poor in the highest-risk D positive, R negative group, and the assays are costly, slow and unstandardised. It plays no part in choosing the donor, the HLA match, the conditioning regimen or the transplant date.
- MCQ
A seropositive stem-cell transplant recipient on pre-emptive CMV surveillance has a low-level plasma CMV PCR that was negative the week before. How should the result be interpreted and acted on?
- A. No universal cutoff; trend guides action
- B. Treat only above one million IU/mL
- C. Any detection needs full induction therapy
- D. Treat only once the patient is febrile
- E. Convert to copies/mL before deciding
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Pre-emptive therapy is triggered by the viral load, but there is no single universal cutoff, because thresholds remain assay-specific even in international units. Two things guide the decision: the trend (a higher load and a faster rate of rise predict progression, so serial values matter more than one reading, and a first-positive after a negative warrants close attention) and the patient’s risk (in a high-risk patient, such as one with graft-versus-host disease, on steroids, T-cell-depleted or mismatched, treatment starts promptly at any confirmed viraemia; in a lower-risk patient a borderline value may be repeated in a few days).
The distractors invent a universal threshold (B), discard the quantitative information (C), make therapy symptom-driven (D), or misunderstand that modern thresholds use international units (E).
- MCQ
A stem-cell transplant recipient is on ganciclovir for CMV. What is its principal dose-limiting toxicity, and how do the main alternative agents differ?
- A. Nephrotoxicity, monitored by creatinine
- B. Hepatotoxicity, monitored by liver enzymes
- C. Hypersensitivity rash, no monitoring
- D. Myelosuppression, chiefly neutropenia
- E. No clinically important toxicity
Show answer
Correct answer: D
The dose-limiting toxicity of ganciclovir and valganciclovir is myelosuppression, especially neutropenia (in roughly a third of patients), monitored by the full blood count and managed with a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor or dose reduction; after stem-cell transplant it can impair engraftment. The main alternatives differ: foscarnet is limited by nephrotoxicity and electrolyte wasting (calcium, magnesium, potassium, phosphate), and cidofovir by nephrotoxicity (proximal tubular injury). This complementary profile is useful: a neutropenic patient can move to foscarnet, and one developing renal impairment away from it.
The distractors misassign the toxicity (A, B), invent one (C), or deny toxicity altogether (E).
- MCQ
A transplant recipient has established CMV disease. Which best describes the first-line treatment and how its duration is decided?
- A. Oral letermovir for two weeks
- B. Lifelong valaciclovir at zoster dosing
- C. IV ganciclovir or oral valganciclovir
- D. Single-dose foscarnet, no monitoring
- E. Reduced immunosuppression alone, no antiviral
Show answer
Correct answer: C
First-line treatment is intravenous ganciclovir or its oral prodrug valganciclovir at induction dosing. Valganciclovir suits non-severe disease with reliable gut absorption; intravenous ganciclovir is preferred for severe, sight-threatening or life-threatening disease, or where absorption is uncertain. Treatment runs a minimum of two weeks and until the viral load clears below the local threshold, and agents are not switched in the first two weeks if the patient is improving, since the load falls slowly. Reducing immunosuppression is a useful adjunct.
Letermovir is prophylaxis only, valaciclovir does not treat CMV disease, foscarnet is not first-line and needs monitoring, and reducing immunosuppression does not replace the antiviral.
- MCQ
A transplant recipient has refractory CMV with a confirmed UL97 mutation conferring ganciclovir resistance. Which option best describes appropriate salvage therapy?
- A. Increase ganciclovir dose, continue
- B. Switch to letermovir monotherapy
- C. Stop antivirals; reduce immunosuppression only
- D. Switch to maribavir or foscarnet
- E. Switch to high-dose valaciclovir
Show answer
Correct answer: D
With a confirmed UL97 mutation (ganciclovir resistance), the active options are maribavir, an oral UL97-kinase inhibitor licensed for refractory or resistant CMV and not myelosuppressive, or foscarnet, which acts on the polymerase and does not need UL97 activation. Reducing immunosuppression is a valuable adjunct, not a substitute for an active drug.
Letermovir has a low resistance barrier and is prophylactic, not salvage (B); increasing ganciclovir does not overcome a true UL97 mutation (A); stopping all antivirals abandons effective options (C); and aciclovir-class drugs do not treat CMV disease (E).
- MCQ
For quantitative CMV PCR monitoring in a transplant recipient, how do plasma and whole-blood specimens compare, and which is generally preferred?
- A. Whole blood is the only calibrated specimen
- B. Plasma is preferred; whole blood runs higher
- C. Plasma and whole blood give identical values
- D. Plasma is preferred only on cost
- E. Whole blood only detects latent genomes
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Plasma is the more widely preferred specimen for routine monitoring: it is more readily standardised, is stable, needs a smaller volume and can be used in leukopenic patients. Whole blood detects cell-associated virus and is somewhat more sensitive at low levels, but is harder to standardise and runs about one log10 higher than a plasma load from the same patient. Because the numbers differ, a patient is followed on one specimen type and one assay throughout, and plasma and whole-blood results are not compared directly.
The distractors overstate whole blood’s standing (A), claim the two are interchangeable (C), reduce the choice to cost (D), or dismiss a valid specimen (E).
- MCQ
For which CMV manifestation is maribavir a poor choice?
- A. CMV gastrointestinal disease
- B. CMV viraemia
- C. CMV syndrome
- D. CMV hepatitis
- E. CMV encephalitis
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Maribavir penetrates the central nervous system and the eye poorly, so it should not be used for CMV encephalitis (or retinitis). It is an oral UL97-kinase inhibitor reserved for refractory or resistant CMV and works for the other manifestations listed, but central-nervous-system or ocular disease calls for an agent that reaches those compartments, such as ganciclovir or foscarnet.
- MCQ
How is CMV best managed in high-risk CAR T-cell therapy recipients?
- A. Universal letermovir prophylaxis
- B. Surveillance and pre-emptive therapy
- C. Universal valganciclovir prophylaxis
- D. Lifelong secondary prophylaxis
- E. No monitoring is required
Show answer
Correct answer: B
CMV reactivation occurs in up to a third of chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell recipients and is linked to higher mortality, but routine prophylaxis is not currently recommended in this group. The guidance is surveillance of high-risk recipients with quantitative viral-load monitoring for the first few weeks after the infusion, treating pre-emptively if the load rises.
Universal letermovir or valganciclovir prophylaxis is not advised here, lifelong secondary prophylaxis is not indicated, and doing no monitoring ignores a real risk.
- MCQ
In a transplant recipient being monitored for cytomegalovirus, what is the difference between CMV infection and CMV disease, and why does it matter?
- A. Infection is detection; disease adds attributable findings
- B. Infection is latent virus; disease is any positive PCR result
- C. Infection is primary; disease is reactivation
- D. Both are identical above the assay cutoff
- E. Infection is serological; disease is culture-confirmed
Show answer
Correct answer: A
CMV infection is detection of the virus (by PCR, antigen or culture) at any site, which may be entirely asymptomatic since CMV is latent for life and reactivates without necessarily causing harm. CMV disease is that detection plus attributable clinical findings, either a viral syndrome (fever, malaise, cytopenias) or tissue-invasive end-organ disease. The distinction drives management: a pre-emptive strategy deliberately treats asymptomatic infection to stop it progressing to disease, so a positive test is a trigger to act read in clinical context, not yet a diagnosis of illness.
The distractors equate detection with disease (B, D), confuse the infection/disease axis with primary versus reactivation (C), or misassign the diagnostic tests (E).
- MCQ
In allogeneic haematopoietic stem-cell transplantation, which donor (D) and recipient (R) CMV serostatus carries the highest risk?
- A. D positive, R negative
- B. D positive, R positive
- C. D negative, R positive
- D. D negative, R negative
- E. Serostatus does not affect the risk
Show answer
Correct answer: C
In stem-cell transplant the graft is the new immune system, not the source of virus. The seropositive recipient (R positive) drives risk by reactivating their own latent CMV, worst when the donor is seronegative (D negative), because the donor-derived immune system carries no CMV-specific T cells to control it.
This is the mirror image of solid-organ transplant, where the graft is the source of virus and D positive, R negative is highest risk.
- MCQ
Letermovir is used for primary CMV prophylaxis in seropositive allogeneic stem-cell transplant recipients. Which statement about it is correct?
- A. Blocks UL97 kinase; needs monitoring
- B. Inhibits DNA polymerase; myelosuppressive
- C. First-line for invasive CMV disease
- D. Pre-emptive only; broad herpesvirus cover
- E. Inhibits terminase; not myelosuppressive
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Letermovir inhibits the CMV terminase (UL56) complex, the machinery that cleaves and packages the viral genome, a target unique to CMV. Two properties make it valuable for prophylaxis in seropositive allogeneic stem-cell recipients: it is not myelosuppressive, so it does not impair engraftment, and it markedly reduces clinically significant CMV. Two caveats are practice-critical: it has no activity against herpes simplex or varicella-zoster virus, so aciclovir-class cover is still needed, and it has a low barrier to resistance, so it is a prophylactic agent, not a treatment. It also inhibits CYP3A, raising calcineurin-inhibitor levels.
The distractors give the wrong target (A, B), wrongly make it a treatment (C), or overstate its spectrum (D).
- MCQ
Which anti-CMV drug inhibits the viral terminase complex?
- A. Ganciclovir
- B. Foscarnet
- C. Cidofovir
- D. Maribavir
- E. Letermovir
Show answer
Correct answer: E
Letermovir inhibits the terminase (UL56) complex, which cleaves and packages the viral genome, a target unique to CMV; it is used for prophylaxis only and has no activity against other herpesviruses.
Ganciclovir, foscarnet and cidofovir all act on the DNA polymerase (UL54), and maribavir inhibits the UL97 kinase.
- MCQ
Which drug interaction or overlapping toxicity is most important to anticipate when managing CMV in a transplant recipient?
- A. Ganciclovir lowers tacrolimus levels
- B. Letermovir raises calcineurin-inhibitor levels
- C. Valganciclovir has no relevant interactions
- D. Foscarnet requires a calcineurin inhibitor
- E. Aciclovir cancels out ganciclovir
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Letermovir inhibits CYP3A, so it raises tacrolimus and cyclosporine levels; calcineurin-inhibitor concentrations must be monitored and doses reduced to avoid nephrotoxicity and over-immunosuppression. A second interaction to anticipate is overlapping myelosuppression: ganciclovir and valganciclovir add to the marrow suppression of mycophenolate and of the stem-cell graft, so the full blood count is watched.
Ganciclovir does not lower tacrolimus, valganciclovir does interact (myelosuppression), foscarnet does not require a calcineurin inhibitor (and is itself nephrotoxic), and aciclovir does not cancel ganciclovir.
- MCQ
Which immunosuppressant class is associated with a lower risk of CMV infection and disease?
- A. mTOR inhibitors
- B. Calcineurin inhibitors
- C. Antithymocyte globulin
- D. High-dose corticosteroids
- E. Antimetabolites
Show answer
Correct answer: A
mTOR inhibitors (sirolimus, everolimus) are associated with a lower incidence of CMV infection and disease, an effect used deliberately in some regimens (and exploited in HHV-8 Kaposi sarcoma).
By contrast, antithymocyte globulin and other T-cell-depleting agents markedly raise CMV risk by removing the T cells that control it, and high-dose corticosteroids also increase risk; calcineurin inhibitors and antimetabolites are part of the standard background immunosuppression.
- MCQ
Which of the following anti-CMV drug pairs cannot be used together?
- A. Ganciclovir + Foscarnet
- B. Ganciclovir + Letermovir
- C. Letermovir + Valaciclovir
- D. Ganciclovir + Maribavir
- E. Maribavir + Valaciclovir
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Ganciclovir and maribavir must not be combined. Maribavir inhibits the UL97 kinase, the very enzyme that phosphorylates (activates) ganciclovir, so blocking it makes ganciclovir ineffective: the two are antagonistic.
The other pairs are not contraindicated on this basis: ganciclovir with foscarnet (different targets, sometimes combined in resistant disease), ganciclovir with letermovir, and letermovir or maribavir with valaciclovir (which covers herpes simplex and varicella-zoster, a gap left by both letermovir and maribavir).
- MCQ
Which of the following is an indirect (immunomodulatory) effect of CMV in the transplant recipient?
- A. Interstitial pneumonitis
- B. Haemorrhagic colitis
- C. CMV retinitis
- D. Allograft rejection
- E. Acute hepatitis
Show answer
Correct answer: D
CMV causes harm in two ways. Direct disease is tissue invasion: pneumonitis, colitis, retinitis and hepatitis. Indirect effects flow from CMV’s immunomodulating activity, and allograft rejection and graft loss are the prime example, alongside bronchiolitis obliterans, transplant vasculopathy, and an increased risk of other infections and of EBV-driven lymphoproliferation.
The indirect effects are a major reason CMV worsens overall transplant outcomes and part of the rationale for universal prophylaxis.
- MCQ
Which statement best describes CMV pneumonitis after allogeneic stem-cell transplantation?
- A. A mild, self-limiting illness
- B. Diagnosed on blood PCR alone
- C. Historically the most lethal manifestation
- D. Seen only in solid-organ transplant recipients
- E. Treated with aciclovir monotherapy
Show answer
Correct answer: C
CMV pneumonitis is the most feared and historically most lethal manifestation of CMV after allogeneic stem-cell transplant, with a mortality of 10 to 30% before effective therapy, reduced but not abolished by ganciclovir. Diagnosis rests on sampling the lung by bronchoalveolar lavage, supported by lung biopsy, since the blood viral load can be low or negative in lung disease. Treatment is ganciclovir combined with CMV immunoglobulin, because the lung injury has a substantial immunopathological component that antiviral therapy alone does not address.
The distractors trivialise the disease (A, D), rely on blood PCR alone (B), or deny the immune component and propose an inactive drug (E).
SAQHow is CMV gastrointestinal disease distinguished from graft-versus-host disease after allogeneic stem-cell transplantation, and why is this difficult? [5]
Model answer
A complete answer explains the overlap, why blood tests do not settle it, and how biopsy resolves it.
Overlapping presentation. Gastrointestinal CMV disease and gut graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) present almost identically after allogeneic stem-cell transplant, with diarrhoea, abdominal pain, nausea and bleeding, so the clinical picture alone cannot separate them. The distinction matters because the treatments pull in opposite directions: CMV needs antiviral therapy and, where possible, less immunosuppression, whereas GVHD needs more immunosuppression.
Blood tests do not settle it. A blood CMV viral load is often low or negative in gastrointestinal CMV disease, so a negative blood PCR does not exclude it and a positive one does not prove that the gut symptoms are due to CMV rather than GVHD.
Biopsy resolves it. The answer is endoscopic biopsy with histology, looking for the characteristic owl’s-eye inclusions, supported by immunohistochemistry for CMV. Because the disease is patchy, multiple biopsies are taken. Importantly, the two can coexist: CMV can complicate GVHD, and the immunosuppression used to treat GVHD promotes CMV, so finding one does not exclude the other.
Exam-styleHow is tissue-invasive CMV disease diagnosed in a transplant recipient, and why can the blood viral load be misleading? [6]
Model answer
A complete answer gives the compartment-specific approach, the role of histology, and the caveats that make blood PCR unreliable here.
The blood viral load can mislead
For tissue-invasive disease, a blood viral load may be low or even negative, particularly in gastrointestinal disease, pneumonitis and retinitis, so a negative blood PCR does not exclude end-organ CMV. Conversely, a positive blood PCR confirms infection but does not by itself prove that a given organ’s problem is due to CMV. A blood PCR should still always be sent, however, to give a baseline against which to monitor the response to treatment.
Compartment-specific diagnosis
- Pneumonitis: bronchoalveolar lavage, supported by lung biopsy. CMV on lavage by PCR outperforms culture, but a positive respiratory culture alone is hard to interpret because the virus is shed asymptomatically.
- Gastrointestinal disease: endoscopic biopsy with histology showing the characteristic owl’s-eye inclusions, or immunohistochemistry, is decisive. Disease is patchy, so multiple biopsies are taken.
- Central nervous system and retina: a cerebrospinal fluid viral load is the standard for encephalitis, and vitreous sampling for retinitis, since blood markers are poor predictors of these.
The key caveat
PCR or culture on tissue can reflect blood contamination or asymptomatic shedding rather than true invasion, so molecular detection is paired with histopathology or immunohistochemistry to confirm that the virus is actually invading the tissue.
Exam-styleWhen should antiviral-resistant CMV be suspected in a transplant recipient, and how does genotypic resistance testing guide management? [6]
Model answer
A complete answer gives the clinical trigger, the genes tested and what each implies, and the resulting choice of agent.
When to suspect resistance
Resistance is suspected when the viral load fails to fall, plateaus, or rises despite adequately dosed therapy, in a patient who is adherent and has had cumulative antiviral exposure (generally beyond two weeks of correct treatment and around four to six weeks of total exposure). Important caveats: a failure of the load to fall in the first two weeks alone is not reliable evidence, because the response can be slow, and resistance is more likely with prolonged or repeated drug exposure and in the most immunosuppressed patients. Genotyping is most informative when the viral load is reasonably high (above about 1000 IU/mL).
Genotypic testing and what it implies
Resistance is confirmed by sequencing the viral genes that the drugs target:
- UL97 (the viral kinase that activates ganciclovir): mutations here are the commonest and emerge first, conferring ganciclovir and valganciclovir resistance.
- UL54 (the DNA polymerase): mutations confer broader resistance, including cross-resistance to foscarnet and cidofovir and additional ganciclovir resistance.
- UL56 is sequenced if letermovir is failing, and UL27 in selected maribavir-refractory cases.
How it guides management
The mutation directs the switch. Isolated UL97 ganciclovir resistance is treated by changing to foscarnet or maribavir; broader UL54 resistance narrows the options and may need combinations or investigational agents, alongside reducing immunosuppression where possible to let immunity help clear the virus.